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otez555 [7]
3 years ago
6

Convert the complex number from polar form to rectangular form, a + bi.

Mathematics
1 answer:
klemol [59]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

\frac{20\pi cos(5) }{3} + \frac{20\pi i sin(5)}{3}

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Answer:G,B and H



Step-by-step explanation:


5 0
3 years ago
the US Census found at the population per square mile in the state rose from 128.7 to 191.3 during the last 10 years. By how muc
rewona [7]

Answer:

The population growth is 6.26 per square mile per year

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given

he US Census found at the population per square mile in the state rose from 128.7 to 191.3 during the last 10 years

So,

Initial population =128.7

Final Population =191.3

Total time =10 years

now, we can find population grow per year

=\frac{final-initial}{T}

now, we can plug values

=\frac{191.3-128.7}{10}

=6.26

So,

The population growth is 6.26 per square mile per year

3 0
4 years ago
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8/x = 32 <br> ..................
krok68 [10]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

x= 1/4

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3 years ago
Of 30 students, į play sports. Of those who play sports, į play soccer.
stellarik [79]

Answer:

what are the equations to the math on this?

8 0
4 years ago
Rockwell hardness of pins of a certain type is known to have a mean value of 50 and a standard deviation of 1.2.a. If the distri
zalisa [80]

Answer:

a

 P(\= X \ge 51 ) =0.0062

b

P(\= X \ge 51 ) = 0

Step-by-step explanation:

From the question we are told that

The mean value is \mu = 50

The standard deviation is  \sigma = 1.2

Considering question a

The sample size is  n = 9

Generally the standard error of the mean is mathematically represented as

      \sigma_x = \frac{\sigma }{\sqrt{n} }

=>   \sigma_x = \frac{ 1.2 }{\sqrt{9} }

=>  \sigma_x = 0.4

Generally the probability that the sample mean hardness for a random sample of 9 pins is at least 51 is mathematically represented as

      P(\= X \ge 51 ) = P( \frac{\= X - \mu }{\sigma_{x}}  \ge \frac{51 - 50 }{0.4 } )

\frac{\= X -\mu}{\sigma }  =  Z (The  \ standardized \  value\  of  \ \= X )

     P(\= X \ge 51 ) = P( Z  \ge 2.5 )

=>   P(\= X \ge 51 ) =1-  P( Z  < 2.5 )

From the z table  the area under the normal curve to the left corresponding to  2.5  is

    P( Z  < 2.5 ) = 0.99379

=> P(\= X \ge 51 ) =1-0.99379

=> P(\= X \ge 51 ) =0.0062

Considering question b

The sample size is  n = 40

   Generally the standard error of the mean is mathematically represented as

      \sigma_x = \frac{\sigma }{\sqrt{n} }

=>   \sigma_x = \frac{ 1.2 }{\sqrt{40} }

=>  \sigma_x = 0.1897

Generally the (approximate) probability that the sample mean hardness for a random sample of 40 pins is at least 51 is mathematically represented as  

       P(\= X \ge 51 ) = P( \frac{\= X - \mu }{\sigma_x}  \ge \frac{51 - 50 }{0.1897 } )

=> P(\= X \ge 51 ) = P(Z  \ge 5.2715  )

=>  P(\= X \ge 51 ) = 1- P(Z < 5.2715  )

From the z table  the area under the normal curve to the left corresponding to  5.2715 and

=>  P(Z < 5.2715  ) = 1

So

   P(\= X \ge 51 ) = 1- 1

=> P(\= X \ge 51 ) = 0

5 0
3 years ago
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