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aniked [119]
3 years ago
15

Assume the economy is on aggregate demand AD1. The Fed should attempt to raise investment by enough to shift aggregate demand fr

om AD1 to _____.

Business
1 answer:
Mashcka [7]3 years ago
5 0

Answer: d. AD2 and then to AD3

Explanation:

The Long Run Aggregate Supply Curve represents the supply in the Economy when the Economy is at full employment. Operating at this level would be most ideal for an economy.

The point where AD and AS intersect is the quantity produced in the short run. Government policy should therefore be geared at an equilibrium level where Aggregate Demand = Aggregate Supply = Long Run Aggregate Supply because at this point, the Economy will also be at Full Employment in the Short Run which is ideal.

The Fed should therefore attempt to raise investment by enough to shift aggregate demand from AD1 to AD2 and then to AD3 because at AD3, the Aggregate Demand would intersect the AS at the Full Employment quantity which is ideal.

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Airida [17]

Answer

The answer and procedures of the exercise are attached in the following archives.

Step-by-step explanation:

You will find the procedures, formulas or necessary explanations in the archive attached below. If you have any question ask and I will aclare your doubts kindly.  

8 0
3 years ago
Catherine often switches from project to project because she thinks she gets more done that way. She also doesn't get bored as o
marta [7]
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5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
David Grange is married and claims 4 withholding allowances. If he is paid biweekly and earns $1,846 per period, use the percent
Trava [24]

Answer: $74.60

Explanation:

For people who are paid biweekly, 1 withholding allowance = $161.5

4 withholding allowances = $646

Earnings after deducting withholding allowance = $1,846 - $646

Earnings after deducting withholding allowance = $1,200

For a married person who is paid biweekly, the percentage applicable to David's pay bracket is 10% on the amount over the $454

That is, 10% on $746 ($1200 - $454)

=$74.60

7 0
3 years ago
G MC Qu. 87 When is a goodwill impairment loss... When is a goodwill impairment loss recognized?
marin [14]

Answer:

Goodwill impairment occurs when a company decides to pay more than book value for the acquisition of an asset.

An impairment is recognized as a loss on the income statement and as a reduction in the goodwill account. The amount of the loss is the difference between the current fair market value of the asset and its carrying value or amount.

Explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
Georgia, the outside sales rep for a major building supply company, reads a report stating that building permits are down dramat
Rus_ich [418]

Answer:

(B) Advice the production and purchasing department to produce or order smaller quantities of products.

Explanation:

According to my research on basic economics and business owning I can say that the best thing for Georgia to do in this situation in order to help her company become more value driven is to Advice the production and purchasing department to produce or order smaller quantities of products. This is because since product is not selling fast enough they should sell what they already have before producing more, otherwise they will be wasting money on products which will eventually cause them to be overflowing stock. Thus losing money.

I hope this answered your question. If you have any more questions feel free to ask away at Brainly.

6 0
3 years ago
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