Answer:
295 units
Explanation:
The cost -volume-profits CVP concepts calculate the breakeven point by dividing fixed costs by the contribution margin per unit.
i.e., Breakeven point = Fixed cost/ contribution margin per unit.
For this company,
Fixed costs are $177,000
Contribution margin per unit
= selling price - variable costs.
=$1250 -$650
=$600
Breakeven point = $177,000 / $600
=295 units
Answer:
The present value of the dividends to be paid out over the next six years if the required rate of return is 15 percent is $6.57
Explanation:
Solution:
Given that
The present value =∑ ⁿ t=1 cf/ (1 +r)t
where cf= cash flow
r =the required rate of return
t = the number of years
Now
The present value will be:
cf₁/(1+r)^1 + cf₂/(1 +)^2 + cf₃/(1+r)3 + cf₄/(1 +r)^4) + cf₅/(1 +r)^5 + cf₆/(1+r)^6
Hence,
cf₁, cf₂ cf₃ = 0 as the firm does not expect to pay dividend in the next three years
Note: Kindly find an attached document of the part of the solution to this given question
Answer:
$113.86 billion
Explanation:
Real GDP = nominal GDP/ price index
Real GDP = $14460 billion / 127 = $113.86 billion
I hope my answer helps you
Be reasonable
Explanation:
Be reasonable where u use logic and strong motives which consequently improves your way of thinking
I hope that I answered u
Answer: Machine B because it has the lower Present Value
Explanation:
<h2>
Machine A</h2>
= Present Value of income - Present Value of Costs
Present value of Income;
Sold for $5,000 after 10 years.
= 5,000/ (1 + 8%)^10
= $2,315.97
Present Value of Costs;
Purchased for $48,000.
Maintenance of $1,000 per year for years.
Present value of maintenance= 1,000 * Present value factor of annuity, 10 years, 8%
= 1,000 * 6.7101
= $6,710.10
Machine A Present Value
= 2,315.97 - 6,710.10 - 48,000
= -$52,394
<h2>
Machine B</h2>
No salvage value.
Present Value of costs
Purchased for $40,000.
Present value of maintenance = (4,000 / (1 + 8%)^3) + (5,000 / ( 1 + 8)^6) + (6,000 / ( 1 + 8%)^8)
= -$9,567.79
Present Value = -40,000 - 9,567.79
= -$49,568