Which of the following phrases best describes O*NET?

A company that manufactures a device that is heavily regulated by the government and has to undergo a rigorous pre-market approv

Vikki [24]

Answer:

preemption

Explanation:

Preemption -

It refers to the process of getting some prior claim , is referred to as preemption .

It is basically some rights which a company takes before any other company getting it .

Some pre approved process is known as preemption , these claims are required to be taken .

Hence , from the given scenario of the question ,

The correct answer is preemption.

7 0

3 years ago

The final step in recognizing the completion of production requires a company to:

BaLLatris [955]

Answer:

A. debit Finished-Goods Inventory and credit Work-in-Process Inventory.

Explanation:

The work in progress cannot yet be debited because it cannot be sold while the finished goods represent cash.

3 0

3 years ago

Suppose that an income producing property is expected to yield cash flows for the owner of $150,000 in each of the next five yea

vivado [14]

Answer:

$1,449,635.50

Explanation:

The computation of the value of the property today is shown below:

First the present value for 5 years is

Year Cash flows Discount factor Present value

1 $150,000 0.925925926 $138,888.89

2 $150,000 0.85733882 $128,600.82

3 $150,000 0.793832241 $119,074.84

4 $150,000 0.735029853 $110,254.48

5 $150,000 0.680583197 $102,087.48

Total present value $598,906.51

The discount factor is

= 1 ÷ (1 + rate)^years

And, the formula of future value is

Future value = Present value × (1 + rate)^number of years

$1,250,000 = Present value × (1 + 0.08)^5

$1,250,000 = Present value × 1.469328077

So, the present value is $850,729

Now the today value of the property is

= $598,906.51 + $850,729

= $1,449,635.50

7 0

3 years ago

Our basketball team has finished $80\%$ of its season, during which we won $40\%$ of the games we played. What percent of the re

masya89 [10]

Answer:

90%

Explanation:

Let x be the total number of matches,

Given,

80% of games were finished,

So, the number of finished games = 80% of x = 0.8x

∴ Remained games= x - 0.8x = 0.2x

Now, 40% of 80% of games were won,

So, the winning games in 0.8x matches = 40% of 0.8x

= 0.4 × 0.8x

= 0.32x

In order to finish games with the same number of wins as losses,

Winning percentage in all games must be 50%,

Thus, the total winning games = 50% of x = 0.5x

Let y be the winning percentage in 0.2x games,

So, the total winning games in 0.2x games = $\frac{y\times 0.2x}{100}$

∵ Number of winning matches in 80% games + number of winning matches in 20% = total winning matches

⇒ $0.32x + \frac{0.2xy}{100}= 0.5x$

$\frac{0.2xy}{100}=0.18x$

$0.2y=18$

$\implies y=90$

Hence, the percent of winning the in the remaining games must be 90%.

6 0

3 years ago

Even though most corporate bonds in the United States make coupon payments semiannually, bonds issued elsewhere often have annua

max2010maxim [7]

Answer:

Market Price $985.01

Explanation:

We have to convert the US semiannually rate to annually.

$(1 + 0.078/2)^{2} -1 = 0.079521$

Now this is the annual rate spected for a similar US Bonds

So we are going to calculate the present value using this rate.

Present value of an annuity of 78 for 20 years at 7.9521%

$C * \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = PV\\$

$78 * \frac{1-(1+0.079521)^{-20} }{0.079521} = PV\\$

PV = 768.55

And we need to add the present value ofthe 1,000 euros at this rate

$\frac{Principal}{(1 + rate)^{time} = Present Value}$

$\frac{1,000}{(1 + 0.079521)^{20} = Present Value }$

Present Value = 216.4602211

Adding those two values together

$985.01

The reasoning behind this is that an american investor will prefer at equal price an US bonds because it compounds interest twice a year over the German Bonds.

6 0

3 years ago