England was the dominant commercial power in the Atlantic ocean in the mid-1700s. During this period, the English society contained a flourishing and more broad middling sector than any other western country. This provided a sturdy opportunity for commerce with, and settlement in, far-flung territories.
With the regards to the statement that if not for Americans participating in WWI, Prohibition would not happen, this statement is <u>false</u>.
<h3>Why is this statement false?</h3>
The movement to enact prohibition was already growing strongly before the First World War broke out.
In fact, before the U.S. joined the war, those in support of Prohibition had majorities in the two houses of Congress. WWI was merely an event that sped up the rate of prohibition and without it, Prohibition would have still happened at a later stage.
Find out more on Prohibition at brainly.com/question/3814594.
Answer:
Blank 1; Veto. Blank 2; Transport
Explanation:
I'm not sure that Veto fits the blank because it could be that or petition, neither really fit but I've narrowed it down to those two. Blank two I know and I'm confident that it's transport.
Does anyone have the answers to the test
"The promise of an easy life" was not a reason that people moved west in the late 1800s, since in fact many people knew that this new life would be quite dangerous and difficult.
