All categories

3 years ago

A bag fertilizer weighs 6 1/2 ib. How much does 1 1/3 Bags of fertilizer weighs

Mathematics

1 answer:

Serggg [28]3 years ago

6 0

Answer:

8 and 2 thirds

Step-by-step explanation:

6 and a half divided by 3 is 2 and 1/6, so since the new ned is a whole (the 6 and a half) and a third of the whole(2 and 1/6) the new weight is 8 and 2/3

You might be interested in

What is the correct definition for cot theta?

NemiM [27]

The correct definition for cot theta is (cos theta)/(sin theta). Cotangent (in a right-angled triangle) the ratio of the side (other than the hypotenuse) adjacent to a particular acute angle to the side opposite the angle. I am hoping that this answer has satisfied your query and it will be able to help you in your endeavor, and if you would like, feel free to ask another question.

5 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Solve for v Simply as much as possible 9v=16+v

qaws [65]

Answer:

v=2

Step-by-step explanation:

9v=16+v

9v-v=16

8v=16

v=16/8

v=2

8 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

given that sin theta= 1/4, 0 is less than theta but less than pi/2, what is the exact value of cos theta

lapo4ka [179]

Answer:

$\cos{\theta} = \frac{\sqrt{15}}{4}$

Step-by-step explanation:

For any angle $\theta$ , we have that:

$(\sin{\theta})^{2} + (\cos{\theta})^{2} = 1$

Quadrant:

$0 \leq \theta \leq \frac{\pi}{2}$ means that $\theta$ is in the first quadrant. This means that both the sine and the cosine have positive values.

Find the cosine:

$(\sin{\theta})^{2} + (\cos{\theta})^{2} = 1$

$(\frac{1}{4})^{2} + (\cos{\theta})^{2} = 1$

$\frac{1}{16} + (\cos{\theta})^{2} = 1$

$(\cos{\theta})^{2} = 1 - \frac{1}{16}$

$(\cos{\theta})^{2} = \frac{16-1}{16}$

$(\cos{\theta})^{2} = \frac{15}{16}$

$\cos{\theta} = \pm \sqrt{\frac{15}{16}}$

Since the angle is in the first quadrant, the cosine is positive.

$\cos{\theta} = \frac{\sqrt{15}}{4}$

3 0

3 years ago

Tyler believes that an 8-sided die can be used to predict whether customers at his store will use a coupon when making their pur

Alik [6]

"1 indicating a coupon and all other outcomes indicating no coupon"
Probability is (number of successful outcomes) / (number of possible outcomes)

Theoretical Probability of rolling a 1: 1/8

Experimental Probability of using coupons: 4/48 = 1/12

So, the experimental probability of a customer using a coupon (that is, 1/12) is smaller than the theoretical probability of rolling a 1 (that is, 1/8).

8 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Can someone help me?

geniusboy [140]

Step-by-step explanation:

If you have any questions about the way I solved it, don't hesitate to ask me in the comments below ;)

7 0

3 years ago