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notsponge [240]
3 years ago
11

The ________ in the Sigma Six cost-of-quality (COQ) equation includes the internal costs before the product is sold (like waste

and re-work).
Business
1 answer:
alex41 [277]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Cost of Failure

Explanation:

A manufacturer incurs failure cost when they produce defective goods. The can be both internal and external cost.

Internal cost are those that incur before the product is sold/shipped to the ultimate buyer such as waste, re-work and/or reduction in sales price for re-worked goods. External cost on the other hand are those that occur following the shipment of goods such as warranty claims, cost of any legal action taken by customer, orders cancelled and/or lost of customer goodwill.

In most cases the external cost is higher than the cost incurred on the internal failure of the goods. So most often the manufacturers are more focused on ensuring that the quality standards are achieved.

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How is email like a business letter? How is it different from a phone call?
Tanzania [10]

Answer:

an email is more like a online letter while a phone call is in voice in real time

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Pina Company produces golf discs which it normally sells to retailers for $7 each. The cost of manufacturing 19,900 golf discs i
Ivahew [28]

Answer:

a) <em>Net income using incremental analysis is  </em> $692

b)   PINA should accept the order because it will increase its net income by $692

<em />

Explanation:

The relevant cash flows for decision to accept or reject the special order are

I. the incremental contribution from of producing 5,350 units

2. The incremental fixed cost- 45,374

Note that whether or not the special order is accepted the fixed cost of manufacturing  would be incurred either way.

Contribution per unit =Selling price - Variable cost

Variable production cost per unit = total variable cost / units

                                  = (10,945 + 29651 + 21094)/19,900

                                     =$3.1

Variable cost per unit of sale = $3.1 + $0.35 =  $3.45

a) Incremental Analysis

<em>Change in Net Income:                               $</em>

I<em>ncremental contribution :</em>

( 4.77 - 3.45) ×   5,350 =                           7,062

<em>Increase in Fixed cost</em> :

(45,374 - 39,004)                                     <u>(  6370)</u>

<em>Net income                                               </em><em><u>   692</u></em>

<em><u>b) </u></em>   PINA should accept the order because it will increase its net income by $692

<em />

6 0
3 years ago
Joe Keho and Mike McLain share income on a 6:4 basis. They have capital balances of $90,000 and $70,000, respectively, when Lind
lions [1.4K]

Answer:

A.

Joe’s Capital (existing partner) = $90,000

Mike’s Capital (existing partner) = $70,000

Profit-sharing ratio = 6:4

Admission of Linda (new partner) with bonus to existing partners:

$100,000 cash contributed for 25% share

So, implied value of partnership firm after admission = $100,000 / 25% = $400,000

However, actual value of partnership firm after admission will be = $90,000 + $70,000 + $100,000 = $260,000

Linda’s Capital in new partnership = 25% * $260,000 = $65,000

However, Linda is contributing $100,000

So, bonus accruing to existing partners = $100,000 - $65,000 = $35,000

Bonus to be split in profit sharing ratio

Bonus accruing to Joe = $35,000 * 6/10 = $21,000

Bonus accruing to Mike = $35,000 * 4/10 = $14,000

Joe'sCapital

$21,000

Mike'sCapital

$14,000

Lindia's Capital

$65,000

b. Admission of Linda (new partner) with bonus to the new partner:

$36,000 cash contributed for 25% share

So, implied value of partnership firm after admission = $36,000 / 25% = $144,000

However, actual value of partnership firm after admission will be = $90,000 + $70,000 + $36,000 = $196,000

Linda’s Capital in new partnership = $196,000 * 25% = $49,000

However, contribution by Linda= $36,000

So, bonus accruing to Linda = $49,000 - $36,000 = $13,000

Joe’s share in bonus to Linda = $13,000 * 6/10 = $7,800

Mike’s share = $13,000 * 4/10 = $5,200

Joe'sCapital

$7,800

Mike'sCapital

$5,200

Lindia's Capital

$49,000

6 0
3 years ago
Rachel sells 100 shares short at $43. The sale requires a margin deposit equal to 60 percent of the proceeds of the sale. If the
andrew11 [14]

Answer:

23.25%; 62.01%

Explanation:

(a) Amount received:

= No. of shares × selling price

= 100 × $43

= $4,300

Sales deposit = 60% of Amount received

                        = 0.6 × $4,300

                        = $2,580

Amount paid = No. of shares × Purchase price

                      = 100 × $49

                      = $4,900

Therefore, Loss = $4,900 - $4,300

                           = $600

(b) If buys at $27, then

Amount paid = $27 × 100

                     = $2,700

Profit = $4,300 - $2,700

         = $1,600

Loss on investment:

= ($600 ÷ $2,580) × 100

= 23.25%

Profit on investment:

= ($1,600 ÷ $2,580) × 100

= 62.01%

7 0
3 years ago
Your company incurs a cost for factory rentfactory rent​, ​which, in the short​ run, is fixed. What happens to this cost in the
mixas84 [53]

Answer:

A. becomes a variable cost

Explanation:

Fixed costs are the expenses that remain constant in a period. During the period under review, fixed costs do not change regardless of the level of output. Fixed costs are mostly made up of overheads such as rent , depreciation, and administrative salaries.

Fixed cost remains constant in a particular financial year. In the long run,  business budgets and projections tend to change, resulting in changes to the fixed cost. In other words, in the long run, fixed costs will change. Therefore, in the long run, all costs are variable expenses.

5 0
3 years ago
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