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anastassius [24]
3 years ago
6

After getting her degree in marketing and working for 5 years for a large department store, Sally started her own specialty shop

in a regional mall. Sally's current lease calls for payments of $1,000 at the end of each month for the next 60 months. Now the landlord offers Sally a new 5-year lease that calls for zero rent for 6 months, then rental payments of $1,050 at the end of each month for the next 54 months. Sally's cost of capital is 11 percent. By what absolute dollar amount would accepting the new lease change Sally's theoretical net worth?
Business
1 answer:
alekssr [168]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

$3,751.90

Explanation:

we must find the present value of both alternatives

alternative 1, keep paying $1,000 per month for 60 months

present value = monthly payment x PV annuity factor

monthly payment = $1,000

PV annuity factor = [1 - 1/(1 + 0.9167%)⁶⁰ ] / 0.9167% = 45.9136

present value = $1,000 x 45.91361 = $45,991.36

alternative 2, pau $1,050 per month for 54 months starting after 6 months

monthly payment = $1,050

PV annuity factor = [1 - 1/(1 + 0.9167%)⁵⁴ ] / 0.9167% = 42.4406

present value in 6 months = $1,050 x 42.4406 = $44,562.63

present value today = $44,562.63 / 1.055 = $42,239.46

Sally's net worth increases by $45,991.36 - $42,239.46 = $3,751.90

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Management Theories, Inc. at a cash price of $1.5 million. Management Theories, Inc. has short-term liabilities of $500,000. As
Pavlova-9 [17]

Answer:

$1,102,820

Explanation:

 The computation of the net present value is shown below:

= Present value of yearly cash inflows - initial investment

where,

Present value of yearly cash inflows is

= Annual year cash inflows × PVIFA factor

= $300,000 × 2.9906

= $897,180

And, the initial investment is

= $1,500,000 + $500,000

= $2,000,000

So the net present value is

= $897,180 - $2,000,000

= $1,102,820

4 0
3 years ago
Imperfect markets: do not exist in democracies. always result in supply exceeding demand. always result in demand exceeding supp
Korolek [52]

Answer:

The correct answer is: when buyers and sellers have influence on price.

Explanation:

The imperfect market situations exist when there are few buyers or sellers such that they are able to influence the market. For instance, in a perfectly competitive market, there is a large number of buyers and sellers. So, any single buyer or seller is not able to influence the market. The price and output are determined by the market forces.  

In an imperfect market such as monopoly or oligopoly, few firms exist so they are able to fix output and price on their own.

5 0
3 years ago
What is GDP of a country
Arlecino [84]

Answer:

Gross Domestic Products (GDP) is a measure of the total market value of all finished goods and services made within a country during a specific period.

Explanation:

GDP is an acronym for Gross Domestic Products (GDP) and it can be defined as a measure of the total market value of all finished goods and services made within a country during a specific period.

Simply stated, GDP is a measure of the total income of all individuals in an economy and the total expenses incurred on the economy's output of goods and services in a particular country.

On a related note, Gross Domestic Products (GDP) is a measure of the production levels of any nation.

Basically, the four (4) major expenditure categories of GDP are;

I. Consumption (C).

II. Investment (I).

III. Government purchases (G).

IV. Net exports (N).

In conclusion, GDP is a measure of the total amount of finished goods and services produced by a country.

6 0
2 years ago
How do you prepare a balance sheet
Romashka [77]

Answer:

1.

Determine the reporting Date and period. 2. Identify your assets. 3. Identify your liabilities.

4. Calculate shareholders' equity.

Add total liabilities to total shareholders' equity and compare to the assets.

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The following is a partially completed lower section of a departmental expense allocation spreadsheet for Brickland. It reports
blagie [28]

Answer:

The correct option is b. $8,100

Explanation:

Since the question was asked about the allocation of maintenance department expense to assembly and the maintenance department expense is based on the square footage.

So, the following equation should be used which is shown below:

= Maintenance department expense × assembly square foot space ÷ total sum of square foot space

where,

Maintenance department expense is $18,000

Assembly square footage is 2,700

And, the total sum of square foot space equals to

=  Fabrication square foot space + assembly square foot space

= 3,300 + 2,700

= 6,000

Now, put these values on the above equation.

So, the value would be equals to

= $18,000 × 2,700 ÷ 6,000

= $18,000 × 0.45

= $8,100

The other cost is irrelevant. Thus, it is ignored while computation.

Hence, the amount of Maintenance department expense to be allocated to Assembly is $8,100

Therefore, the correct option is b. $8,100

7 0
3 years ago
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