Answer:
I believe the answer would be Confucianism.
Explanation:
Answer:
The European country that most likely monopolized the Indian cotton trade was Great Britain.
Explanation:
The 19th-century Great Britain was still an imperialist country. At that moment, however, it was prioritizing establishing colonies by means of free trade. It is interesting to notice the irony in the name, since the colonies were usually not free to trade with other partners at all. A colonizer would impose its presence and influence over an area or even a whole nation, forcing it to import its industrialized products and to export their raw materials. This is precisely what Great Britain did to India in the 19th century. India was absorbing textiles that Great Britain no longer had a market in Europe for. Great Britain, on the other hand, would import India's cotton, since India was no longer producing its own textiles.
<span>The idea of the invisible hand came from "Adam Smith," since he coined the phrase the "Invisible Hand of the Market," which he believed should be the driving force behind any successful economy. </span>
Germany's economy was in a sad state of affairs after the war and now having to pay reparations that were astronomical (approximately $35 billion) the economy was in a very vulnerable state, the whole country was and it was searching for its savior.
When in doubt, historians should always "<span>C. Search for additional evidence to see which argument it supports" This allows them to reach their own conclusion or confirm the existing one. </span>