1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
TiliK225 [7]
2 years ago
6

PLEASE HELP,

History
1 answer:
Alona [7]2 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Jawaharlal Nehru unpacked the structure of the British colonial policy in India.

Explanation:

As Nehru made clear from the above excerpt that India who was a vital player in the foreign market and Britain reduced it to a mere puppet in British hands. The monopoly of the trade of the East India Company and the industrial revolution made India a market for British goods. And therefore, India was used to fulfilling the demands of colonial masters including the supply of raw material and the market for finished products. It has a devastating impact on India leading to widespread unemployment and poverty.

You might be interested in
In the 1990s, the Russian people lost confidence in the value of the ruble, and many were no longer willing to sell goods and se
AnnyKZ [126]
The answer would be acceptability.
3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
What was the 3 main problems king George caused?
bixtya [17]
Deal with the wars, religious stuggles, and societal issuses which plague the empire.
3 0
3 years ago
How does someone become a member of the Supreme Court? A. by popular election and Senate approval B. by judicial appointment and
Nastasia [14]

Answer: It is either C or D but it's probably C

Explanation: Based on common sense and kinda off what google says

4 0
3 years ago
How did the progressive principles of initiative and referendum increase the level of democracy in government in Oklahoma?
shtirl [24]
Because They Allowed More Than One Elected Official Run For Office

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Why is the period between 600-1450 ce referred to as the dark ages? were they "dark" globally? if not, give examples?
n200080 [17]

Between the time periods of 600-1450 Common Era, it was referred to as the dark ages in Europe because the cities and regions in Europe lack poetry, which was a dark experience. It was not really a dark globally, but only in the part of Europe wherein poetry vanished, but right after the dark ages, was the beginning of the modern age, which gave life to poetry and to music once more.

4 0
3 years ago
Other questions:
  • Which group's main focus in the New World was to profit from the fur trade?
    6·2 answers
  • Robert Fulton is credited with inventing the _____.
    9·1 answer
  • How did his defeat in russia change napoleons fortunes
    12·1 answer
  • Jews and people of color are considered to be a minority because :
    9·1 answer
  • Impact of new technologies at the turn of the century(inventors,inventions, and industries)
    10·1 answer
  • what is ironic in the Lincoln stated goal of ensuring the government of the people by the people for the people shall not erish
    11·1 answer
  • What was one argument against nineteenth-century American imperialism?
    11·1 answer
  • The government of Great Britain built railroads school and irrigation systems in colonial India primarily to
    11·1 answer
  • !!!help!!!
    12·1 answer
  • What were two non-American world leaders during the 1960's?
    7·1 answer
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!