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den301095 [7]
3 years ago
9

One year ago, you bought shares of Aaon, Inc at $36.48 a share. You received a dividend of $1.62 per share last month and sold t

he stock today for $41.18 a share. What is the capital gains yield on this investment?
a) 11.41%
b) 15.62%
c) 4.44%
d) 12.88%
Business
1 answer:
Pie3 years ago
7 0

Answer: 12.88%

Explanation:

The following information can.be inferred from the question:

Purchase price of share = $36.48

Dividend = $1.62

Selling price = $41.18

Capital gain = $41.18 - $36.48 = $4.70

Capital gain yield:

= Capital gain / Purchase price × 100

= (4.70 / 36.48) × 100

= 0.1288

= 12.88%

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Shares of common stock of the Samson Co. offer an expected total return of 13.0 percent. The dividend is increasing at a constan
krok68 [10]

Answer:

b. 7.60 percent.

Explanation:

Dividend yield = expected return - dividend growth rate

  • expected return = 13%
  • dividend growth rate = 5.4%

dividend yield = 13% - 5.4% = 7.6%

Dividend yield is a financial metric that measures the rate of return that a stockholder receives every time a dividend is distributed. You can also calculate it by dividing dividends received by stock price.

4 0
2 years ago
Cal has a choice between two gambles. The first gamble offers a 50 percent chance of winning $20 and a 50 percent chance of losi
Ber [7]

Answer:

The second gamble has the higher expected value. EV = 4

Explanation:

In betting, expected value can be defined as (Amount won per bet * probability of winning) – (Amount lost per bet * probability of losing)

For the first gamble:

EV=(0.5*20) - (0.5*20) = 0

For the second gamble:

EV= (0.2*100) - (0.8*20) = 4

This means that Cal is expected to earn $4 for each $20 waged on the second gamble while he is expected to break even in the first gamble.

Therefore, the second gamble has the higher expected value.

4 0
3 years ago
Crich Corporation uses direct labor-hours in its predetermined overhead rate. At the beginning of the year, the estimated direct
Snezhnost [94]

Answer:

$4,248 under applied

Explanation:

For computing the ending overhead amount we need to do following calculations which are shown below:

Predetermined overhead rate is

= Total estimated manufacturing overhead ÷ estimated direct labor-hours

= $516,368 ÷ 21,880 hours

= $23.6 per hour

Now

Actual overhead applied  is

= $23.6 ×  21,700 hours

= $512,120

Therefore,

Overhead under applied is

= Manufacturing overhead - Actual overhead applied

= $516,368 - $512,120

= $4,248 under applied

3 0
3 years ago
On January 2, Dixie, Inc., pays a salvage company $1,000 to haul away a machine costing $28,000 with accumulated depreciation of
Alex Ar [27]

Answer:

Dr Accumulated depreciation-Machinery 28,000

Dr Loss on disposal 1000

Cr Cash 1000

Cr Machinery 28,000

Explanation:

Based on the information given the appropriate journal entry to record the transaction on On January 2 is :

On January 2

Dr Accumulated depreciation-Machinery 28,000

Dr Loss on disposal 1000

Cr Cash 1000

Cr Machinery 28,000

3 0
3 years ago
First person get brianlyeist
Cerrena [4.2K]

Answer:

yay

Explanation:

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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