Answer:
That is correct this is a liability
Explanation:
That is correct this is a liability. That is because a liability refers to being legally responsible for something. In this scenario, since they paid you $200 for hair coloring then you owe the client that. Meaning that you are legally responsible to provide hair coloring services to the client and until you do that you are liable.
- Hey there , ronisha!
Answer:
- Full settlement generally means DISCOUNT ALLOWED.
- Firstly , Read out the question and try to understand. It says we purchased some stuffs of Rs 30000 from the sansee stores and we payed Rs 28000 in full settlement which implies that we received the discount of Rs 30000-28000 i.e Rs 2000.
- You must have known the rules for debit and credit. As we know In case of personal account , Debit : The receiver , We have sansee stores as the receiver so we placed it in debit side.
- Remember: When the question says that the cash is payed through cheque , you should always consider cheque as a bank. Now , In the case of personal account , Credit : The giver. Who's the giver? Of course , bank! So , we placed it in credit side.
- Now , In case of nominal account , Credit : the incomes or gains . The question says we received the discount so obviously it's not expenses. So, We placed discount received in credit side. You must have studied that Every debit should have equal credit. And we're done!
- Hope this helps! Please let me know if you have any questions regarding my answer and also don't hesitate to reach out to me if you need any other help! :)
Answer: bonds
Explanation: will allow for a risk free option and to gain money from a little bit of time and money
(not 100% sure on answer but I believe it is bonds)
Answer:
The correct answer is letter "B": Decreasing your stocks and increasing your bonds.
Explanation:
Target-date funds are pools of assets employees with a 401(k) retirement account can access. <em>Target-date funds consider stocks as riskier assets than bonds</em>, thus, more stocks than bonds are included in the fund of the employee at first. However, <em>as soon as the date when the employee is to retire approaches, the fund automatically lowers the number of stocks in the employee's account to include more bonds</em>, which are safer securities.
Answer: Zero
Explanation:
The Correlation Coefficient measures the relationship between 2 variables under study and ranges from -1 to +1 which -1 meaning that the two are perfectly negatively correlated and +1 meaning they are perfectly positively correlation. A Correlation Coefficient of 0 means that there is no relationship.
An efficient market is one where all information is available to every market participant. This means that one cannot use information from one period to make abnormal profits in another period because all information is available. The Correlation Coefficient will therefore show 0 because information from the previous period is not being used in another period meaning there is no relationship between stock returns.
