Answer:
$8.78
Explanation:
National advertising made dividend payment of $0.75 per share
The dividend is expected to grow at a constant rate of 6.50%
= 6.50/100
= 0.065
The company beta is 1.85
The required return on the market is 10.50%
The risk free rate is 4.50%
The first step is to calculate the rate of return using the CAMP model
R = Risk free rate+beta(market return-risk free rate)
= 4.50%+1.85(10.50%-4.50%)
= 4.50%+1.85×6%
= 4.50%+11.1
= 15.6
Required rate of return= 15.6
Therefore the current stock price can be calculated as follows
Po= Do(1+g)/(r-g)
Where Do= 0.75, g= 0.065, r= 15.6
Po= 0.75(1+0.065)/(0.156-0.065)
Po= 0.75(1.065)/0.091
Po= 0.7987/0.091
Po= $8.78
Hence the company current stock price is $8.78
Answer:
Under the lower-of-cost-or- net realizable value basis of accounting for inventories, the value that Taylor should report for the TVs on the balance sheet is $350 × 5 = $1,750
Explanation:
The lower-of-cost-or- net realizable value basis of accounting for inventories values inventory at the lower of its cost or net realizable value. This basis of accounting gives a <em>faithful representation</em> to the users of the value of assets in inventory that firm holds. This is also <em>prudent</em> in that profits are not overstated in the Income statement.
Answer:
Committee reports
Explanation:
Committee reports
Committee report will help Edie in order to understand the newly enacted code section .
Since ,
A committee report is the report which is submitted by the committee to an assembly on the matters related to the business , which is referred to committee or may be on other matters .
Hence , the correct answer is C. Committee reports .
Answer:
P= 18
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Fixed costs= 2,500,000 + 300,000= 2,800,000
Variable costs= 10 per unit
Estimated demand= 100,000 units
Break-even point= fixed costs/(P - variable cost)
100,000= 2800000/(P - 10)
100000*(P - 10)= 2,800,000
100000*P - 1,000,000= 2,800,000
100000P=1,800,000
P= 18
Answer:
Case 1 = $9,420
Case 2 = 0
Explanation:
Determining the amount of impairment loss is given below:-
Case 1
Impairment loss = Amortized cost - Fair value
= $41,640 - $32,220
= $9,420
Case 2
Impairment loss = Amortized cost - Fair value
= 91,800 - $102,220
= 0
Since, the fair value is higher than Amortized cost so the value of Impairment loss in case 2 is 0.
