The question is incomplete. The complete question is as follows:
During a routine follow-up appointment for well-controlled dyslipidemia, a 26-year-old man is evaluated for a lump in his right groin. He first noted the lump one evening approximately 2 months ago after he helped his fiancé move into a new apartment. The lump was moderately uncomfortable, with pain concentrated in the groin and upper, inner aspect of his right thigh. The mass and discomfort subsided by the next morning, but he has had recurrence of mild to moderate pain during the week, but he is generally asymptomatic in the morning before going to work at his job at a factory where he stands most of the day. He has no prior surgical history, and his medical history is otherwise unremarkable. On physical examination, a soft, reducible mass consistent with a hernia is palpated in the right groin; the left groin appears normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
a. Use of a truss to compress the hernia and keep it from protruding
b. Urgent inguinal hernia repair because of a high risk for incarceration
c. Ultrasound examination of the groin to confirm the presence of a hernia
d. Elective open inguinal hernia repair at the patient's convenience
e. Watchful waiting because his symptoms consistently resolve with rest
Answer:
On the basis of the symptoms, the patient is suffering from indirect inguinal hernia. The abdominal cavity protrude in this medical condition and marked by excessive pain.
The management can be done by the surgery or by the elective open inguinal hernia repair process. This can only be done according to the patient convenience. The conditions needs to be corrected as it might cause severe problem in the body.
Hello there!
You're answer should be - A.
Hope this helps you!
~Galexie
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