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UkoKoshka [18]
3 years ago
13

Consider the equation, where p is a real number coefficient.

Mathematics
1 answer:
vazorg [7]3 years ago
5 0
This should help here you go

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from a board 4 feet 2 inches long, a board 3 feet 7 inches long is cut what is the lengh of the remaining board?
MrRissso [65]
Math:

Well, you know that 12 inches goes into 1 foot.

So, let's start with just making everything into inches.

4 feet * 12 = 48+2 = 50 inches.

3*12 = 36 inches + 7 = 43 inches.
50 - 43 = 7.

Your answer:
7 inches.
7 0
3 years ago
For the equations given below, which statement is true?
allochka39001 [22]

Answer: C. The equations have the same solution because the second equation can be obtained by adding 6 to both sides of the first equation.

Step-by-step explanation:

You know that the first equation is:

-3x-8=19

And the second equation is:

-3x-2=25

According to the Addition property of equality:

If a=b; then a+c=b+c

Then, you can add 6 to both sides of the first equation to keep it balanced. Then, you get:

-3x-8=19\\\\-3x-8+(6)=19+(6)

-3x-2=25

Therefore, you can observe that the second equation can be obtained by adding 6 to both sides of the first equation, therefore, the equations have the same solution.

If you want to verify this, you can solve for "x" from both equations:

- First equation:

-3x-8=19\\\\-3x=19+8\\\\x=\frac{27}{-3}\\\\x=-9

- Second equation:

-3x-2=25\\\\-3x=25+2\\\\x=\frac{27}{-3}\\\\x=-9

5 0
3 years ago
Multiply using a special product formula (6x-8) (6x+8)
ANEK [815]

The correct answer is B.

6x*6x=36x

-8*+8=-64

Thus, our equation is 36x-64

Hope this helps!

4 0
3 years ago
The weekly amount spent by a small company for in-state travel has approximately a normal distribution with mean $1450 and stand
Llana [10]

Answer:

0.0903

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that :

The mean = 1450

The standard deviation = 220

sample mean = 1560

P(X > 1560) = P( Z > \dfrac{x - \mu}{\sigma})

P(X > 1560) = P(Z > \dfrac{1560 - 1450}{220})

P(X > 1560) = P(Z > \dfrac{110}{220})

P(X> 1560) = P(Z > 0.5)

P(X> 1560) = 1 - P(Z < 0.5)

From the z tables;

P(X> 1560) = 1 - 0.6915

P(X> 1560) = 0.3085

Let consider the given number of weeks = 52

Mean \mu_x = np = 52 × 0.3085 = 16.042

The standard deviation =  \sqrt {n \time p (1-p)}

The standard deviation = \sqrt {52 \times 0.3085 (1-0.3085)}

The standard deviation = 3.3306

Let Y be a random variable that proceeds in a binomial distribution, which denotes the number of weeks in a year that exceeds $1560.

Then;

Pr ( Y > 20) = P( z > 20)

Pr ( Y > 20) = P(Z > \dfrac{20.5 - 16.042}{3.3306})

Pr ( Y > 20) = P(Z >1 .338)

From z tables

P(Y > 20) \simeq 0.0903

7 0
3 years ago
2 3 + x = 3 what is X solved for
Olegator [25]

Answer:

Obviously its x=3-23=-20.

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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