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3 years ago

A private limited company failed. It owed £60,000 in debt. Simon had

Business

1 answer:

d1i1m1o1n [39]3 years ago

8 0

Answer:

£10,000

Explanation:

Simon is a shareholder in a private limited company. As a shareholder, he enjoys limited liabilities to the debts of the company. Limited liabilities means that his obligations to the debts of the business are limited to the amount of capital invested. Should the company fail in meeting its obligations, Simon's liabilities to the company will be a maximum of $10,000, which is the amount he invested.

The limited liabilities feature protects shareholders and investors in private limited companies and corporations from losing more than their contributed capital in case a business fails. Simon's personal assets of $100,000 will not feature in any way.

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Lisa is a tax accountant. She needs to enter many numbers. To enter these numbers, she should use the _____.

Anna [14]

Answer:

Numeric keypad on the right side of the keyboard

Explanation:

When entering many numbers at a time, using the keyboard that is just for numbers on the right side of the full keyboard is a much quicker way to complete the task. When you are able to use one hand to type them all without accidently hitting a letter key, you can be more efficient and accurate.

5 0

4 years ago

Read 2 more answers

For which capital component must you make a tax adjustment when calculating a firm’s weighted average cost of capital (WACC)?

Basile [38]

Answer:

1. Debt

2. 8.75%

3. 8.85%

4. 6.195%

Explanation:

For computing the tax adjustment, the Debt capital component is taken

The normal formula to compute WACC is shown below:

= Weightage of debt × cost of debt × ( 1- tax rate) + (Weightage of preferred stock) × (cost of preferred stock) + (Weightage of common stock) × (cost of common stock)

The computation of the pre-tax cost of debt and after-tax cost of debt is shown below:

1. The after tax cost of debt would be

= Pretax cost of debt × ( 1 - tax rate)

= 12.50% × ( 1 - 0.30)

= 8.75%

The NPER represents the time period.

Given that,

Present value = $1,382.73

Assuming figure - Future value or Face value = $1,000

PMT = 1,000 × 13% = $130

NPER = 20 years

The formula is shown below:

= Rate(NPER;PMT;-PV;FV;type)

The present value come in negative

So, after solving this,

3. The pretax cost of debt is 8.85%

4. And, the after tax cost of debt would be

= Pretax cost of debt × ( 1 - tax rate)

= 8.85% × ( 1 - 0.30)

= 6.195%

4 0

4 years ago

Some colleges charge all students the same “activity fee.” Suppose that students differ by how many campus activities they engag

MAXImum [283]

Answer: (d.) A lump-sum tax which violates the benefits principle.

Explanation:

Here the tax is an amount, i.e. it is lump-sum and it violates benefit principle because they are not taxed according to their willingness to pay.

Also a same fee is charged from all the students irrespective of their level of activity, i.e. a lump sum tax.

Therefore it is violating the benefits principle because the fee is independent of the campus activities. A student might be receiving greater benefits than the other in terms of higher campus activities but is paying the same fee.

6 0

3 years ago

Six months ago, Benders Gym repurchased $140,000 of its common stock. The company pays regular dividends totaling $18,500 per qu

Studentka2010 [4]

Answer:

$168,400

Explanation:

Benders Gym repurchased their common stock at the rate of $140,000

Benders Gym pays a regular dividend of $18,500 four times in a year

For a period of one year 1,200 shares was issued at the rate of $38 per share

Therefore, the amount of cash flow to the stockholders for the past one year can be calculated as follows

=[18,500×4]-[1,200×38-(140,000)]

= 74,000-[45,600-140,000]

= 74,000-[-94,000]

= 74,000+94,000

= $168,400

Hence the amount of cash flow to the stock holders for a period of one year is $168,400

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3 years ago

The process of identifying and documenting specific and provable flaws in the organization’s information asset environment is ca

True [87]

Answer:

True

Explanation:

VULNERABILITY ASSESSMENT can be said to mean the process or ways in which an organisation information system is been assess and evaluate for any risks, threat or anything that may cause harm and vulnerabilities in the organization’s information system or information asset environment in order to help improve the safeguards , review the security weaknesses thereby making it less harmful and less vulnerable when needed.

7 0

3 years ago