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Ymorist [56]
3 years ago
15

A recent study on crime rates examines whether crime depends on sunshine. A researcher hypothesizes that sunshine makes people h

appy and thus reduces crime. She collects data from cities across the USA and their sunshine exposure, runs a regression, and finds the following:Dependent Variable: Number of Crimes per 100,000 people (higher scores mean more crime)DemocratsRepublicansIndependentSupport10300Oppose50100Don’t Care5020 R2 = .45Interpret the estimated slope, estimated intercept, and R2 from this regression. State whether the slope is statistically significant, how you reach
Business
1 answer:
Phoenix [80]3 years ago
4 0

Answer and Explanation:

R-square measures whether the variation exists or how much dependence the independent variables on the dependent variables.

R2 = .45 which is quite low. This shows that there is not much variation. In order to increase the R2 the researcher can add more independent variables.

The below part is taken from the internet as the question was incomplete:

Sunny days = 0.5

Intercept = 2.1

The slope shows a positive relationship (direct relationship) with the dependent variable which is crime dependency.

Sunny days is the independent variable.

Intercept is also positive whereas there is significance in the p value which helps in concluding that we will reject the null hypothesis.  

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For each of the unrelated transactions described below, present the entries required to record each transaction.
Mars2501 [29]

Answer:

Journal Entry

Explanation:

The Journal Entry is shown below:-

1. Cash Dr,                                                $19,618,250

Discount on bonds payable Dr,               $606,750

          To Bonds payable                                           $20,225,000

(Being Bonds issued is recorded)

Working Note:-

Cash = ($20,225,000 × (97 ÷ 100)

=  $19,618,250

So, the bonds has been issued a discount. The par value of the bonds is 100.

2. Cash Dr,                                                $19,416,000

Discount on bonds payable Dr,               $1,820,250

          To Bonds payable                                           $20,225,000  

          To Paid in capital share warrants                   $1,011,250

(Being bonds issued is recorded)

Working Note:-

The Value of bonds issued at a discount

So, value of bonds = ($20,225,000 × ($96 ÷ $100)

= $19,416,000

Now, Value of warrants = ($20,225,000 ÷ 100) × $5

= $1,011,250

Total value of bonds including warrants = Value of bonds + Value of warrants

= $19,416,000 + $1,011,250

= $21,236,250

3. Debt conversion expense Dr,      $78,300

Bonds payable Dr,                             $10,342,000

          To discount payable                            $58,600

           To common stock                               $1,034,200

           To paid in capital in excess

            of common stock                                $9,249,200

           To cash                                                  $78,300

(Being debt conversion is recorded)

6 0
3 years ago
If the market maker is willing to purchase the entire block of 1,500 shares from Amara and, from that block, resell 1,000 shares
NeTakaya

Answer:

$1,300

Explanation:

Calculation to determine what the market maker’s net profit from Brent’s transaction

First step is to calculate the bid-ask spread using this formula

Bid-ask spread=Ask price-Bid price

Let plug in the formula

Bid-ask spread=$31.80-$30.50

Bid-ask spread=$1.30

Now let calculate the Net profit

Using this formula

Net profit=Bid-ask spread*Shares resell

Net profit=$1.3 x 1000 shares

Net profit=$1,300

Therefore the market maker’s net profit from Brent’s transaction will be $1,300

3 0
3 years ago
) in efficient market, prices appear to move randomly because
NemiM [27]
B.only new information affects stock prices.
7 0
3 years ago
The following information pertains to Lightning Inc., at the end of December: Credit Sales $ 20,000 Accounts Payable 10,000 Acco
timama [110]

Answer:

The appropriate amount of Bad Debt Expense is $3,345.20.

Explanation:

The appropriate amount of Bad Debt Expense can be calculated as follows:

Bad debt expense = (Percentage of accounts receivable not yet due it will not collect * Accounts receivable not yet due) + (Percentage of receivables up to 30 days past due it will not collect * Amount of receivables up to 30 days past due) + (Parentage of receivables of receivables greater than 30 days past due it will not collect * Amount of receivables greater than 30 days past due) - Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts (credit) ……………………… (1)

Substituting the relevant values into equation (1), we have:

Bad debt expense = (7% * $7,500) + (20% + $2,300) + (46% * $2,000) - $400 = $3,345.20

Therefore, the appropriate amount of Bad Debt Expense is $3,345.20.

3 0
2 years ago
Name three traits of a target audience
timofeeve [1]
It's Gender,Age,<span>Parental Status,and Income Level.

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8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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