96 x 8 = 768
should be the answer if not sorry -^-
Answer:
f'(1)=150ln(1.5)
Step-by-step explanation:
I'm not sure why you would need a table since the limit definition of a derivative (from what I'm remembering) gives you the exact formula anyway... so hopefully this at least helps point you in the right direction.
My work is in the attachment but I do want to address the elephant on the blackboard real quick.
You'll see that I got to the point where I isolated the h's and just stated the limit equaled the natural log of something out of nowhere. This is because, as far as I know, the way to show that is true is through the use of limits going to infinity. And I'm assuming that you haven't even begun to talk about infinite limits yet, so I'm gonna ask you to just trust that that is true. (Also the proof is a little long and could be a question on it's own tbh. There are actually other methods to take this derivative but they involve knowing other derivatives and that kinda spoils a question of this caliber.)
Answer:
add the absolute value for both, boom ur answer
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
the answer is b
Step-by-step explanation:
if u divide .14 by .2
its gonna give u .8
2 times 8 is 16 but there are two decimals so its .16
hope this helps
We have 20 chances out of 100 which is 20/100=1/5 other known as 1 in 5 chance
The even numbers are 2, 4, 6, .., 100. 50 chances out of 100 which is 50/100=1/2 other know as 1 in 2 chance