**Answer:**

4.76%

**Explanation:**

The requirement in this question is determining the discount rate which gives the same present value in both cases since discount rates discount future cash flows to present value terms.

PV of a pertuity=annual cash flow/discount rate

PV of a pertuity=$17,000/r

PV of ordinary annuity=annual cash flow*(1-(1+r)^-n/r

PV of ordinary annuity=$30,000*(1-(1+r)^-18/r

$17,000/r=$30,000*(1-(1+r)^-18/r

multiply boths side by r

17000=30,000*(1-(1+r)^-18

divide both sides by 30000

17000/30000=1-(1+r)^-18

0.566666667=1-(1+r)^-18

by rearraging the equation we have the below

(1+r)^-18=1-0.566666667

(1+r)^-18=0.433333333

divide indices on both sides by -18

1+r=(0.433333333)^(1/-18)

1+r=1.047554315

r=1.047554315-1

r=4.76%

**Answer:**

Minimize is the correct answer for plato users

**Explanation:**

**Answer: You need to subtract the following then add what you have left.**

**Explanation: For example if you had $300 and you spent 200 you have $100 left**

**Answer:**

**$4,248 under applied **

**Explanation:**

For computing the ending overhead amount we need to do following calculations which are shown below:

Predetermined overhead rate is

**= Total estimated manufacturing overhead ÷ estimated direct labor-hours**

= $516,368 ÷ 21,880 hours

= $23.6 per hour

Now

Actual overhead applied is

= $23.6 × 21,700 hours

= $512,120

Therefore,

Overhead under applied is

** = Manufacturing overhead - Actual overhead applied
**

= $516,368 - $512,120

= **$4,248 under applied **

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