Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
50 dollars = ∉34
∉1 = Rs 150
Rs 382800 / 150 Rs per ∉ = 382800/150 ∉
=2552 ∉
50 dollars = ∉34 so 50/34 dollars = ∉
2552 ∉ × 50/34 dollar per ∉ = in the units the ∉ cancel out
∉ × dollar/∉ = dollars
(2552 × 50) / 34 = 3752.94 dollars <------------------
Here is another way of looking at the answer...........
Rs 382800 × 1∉/150 Rs × 50 dollars/34 ∉ = note how the units cancel
= 382800 × (1/150) × (50/34) Rs × ∉/Rs × dollars/∉
= 3,752.94 dollars leaving only dollars in the numerator
Answer:
C .......
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
<em>D. 30</em>
Step-by-step explanation:
6 ÷ 1/5 <em>-given expression</em>
6 x 5 <em>-use the </em><em>keep, change, flip </em><em>method, where you</em><em> keep</em><em> the </em><u><em>first </em></u><em>number, </em><em>change</em><em> the </em><u><em>division sign</em></u><em> to a </em><u><em>multiplication sign</em></u><em>, and </em><em>flip</em><em> the f</em><u><em>raction</em></u><em> that comes after the symbol.</em>
<em>6 x 5 = 30</em>
<em>30 is the answer</em>
