Answer:
If rounded to the nearest 10 bacteria, then it would be 500 bacteria.
Step-by-step explanation:
First multiply 150 by two in order to get 300, that leaves 4 hours to figure out. From there you can figure out the rest by seeing that 4 is 2/3 of 6. I converted it into the decimal number .66. Multiply 300 by .66 to get 198 and then add it to 300 to get 498. Then just round it up to the nearest 10 bacteria which leaves you with the final answer of 500 bacteria.
The answer would be 920. hope that helped
Answer:
5,-0.5 is the answer to the fist one
Step-by-step explanation:
they want you to give the mid<em>dle </em>point of the line segment when you have graphed the two end points,... find the coordinates of the point the would be in the middle,... Best of luck,... Chow
Answer:
m=26 and s=16
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
We estimate to have 8.33 times the number 6 in 50 trials.
Step-by-step explanation:
Let us consider a success to get a 6. In this case, note that the probability of having a 6 in one spin is 1/6. We can consider the number of 6's in 50 spins to be a binomial random variable. Then, let X to be the number of trials we get a 6 out of 50 trials. Then, we have the following model.

We will estimate the number of times that she spins a 6 as the expected value of this random variable.
Recall that if we have X as a binomial random variable of n trials with a probability of success of p, then it's expected value is np.
Then , in this case, with n=50 and p=1/6 we expect to have
number of times of having a 6, which is 8.33.