Can you clarify the question here?
Answer: 1975
Explanation:
That was when they got fully communized.
The answer is <span>Rome becoming a republic.
here are the dates </span><span>It became a republic in 509 BC, Julius Caesar is assassinated in 44 BC, and Rome becomes an empire when Augustus takes power in 27 BC.</span><span />
Globalization must be expected to influence the distribution of income as well as its level. So far as the distribution of income between countries is concerned, standard theory would lead one to expect that all countries will benefit. Economists have long preached that trade is mutually beneficial, and most of us believe that the experience of widespread growth alongside rapidly growing trade in the postwar period serves to substantiate that. Similarly most FDI goes where a multinational has intellectual capital that can contribute something to the local economy, and is therefore likely to be mutually beneficial to investor and recipient. And a flow of capital that finances a real investment is again likely to benefit both parties, since the yield on the investment is expected to be higher than the rate of interest the borrower has to pay, while that rate of interest is also likely to be higher than the lender could expect at home since otherwise there would have been no incentive to send it abroad. Loose talk about free trade making the rich countries richer and poor countries poorer finds no support in economic analysis.
The answer is A... sort of. Two-thirds (34) of the state legislatures may apply to Congress to call a Convention of the States to propose amendments to the Constitution. Then, three-fourths (38) of the state legislatures must ratify those proposals before they actually become amendments to the Constitution.
