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elixir [45]
4 years ago
12

200 is blank times as much as 2

Mathematics
2 answers:
fenix001 [56]4 years ago
8 0
It is 100 times as much as 2 because 2 times 100 is 200
Gre4nikov [31]4 years ago
6 0
Lets think of this as an algebraic equation. 200=nx2. If you think carefully about this problem, you can use the commutative property to find the value of n. Do the problem 200 divided by 2. 200 divided by 2 is 100, and so the value of n is 100. So 200 is 100 times as much as 2.
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Solve for x. Geometry problem.
barxatty [35]

Answer:

12.33

Step-by-step explanation:

6x - 2 + 9x - 3 = 180° (linear pair)

6x + 9x - 2 - 3 = 180°

15x - 5 = 180°

15x = 180 + 5

15x = 185

x = 185/15

x = 12.33

hope this helps you!

5 0
3 years ago
a slitter assembly contains 48 blades five blades are selected at random and evaluated each day for sharpness if any dull blade
son4ous [18]

Answer:

P(at least 1 dull blade)=0.7068

Step-by-step explanation:

I hope this helps.

This is what it's called dependent event probability, with the added condition that at least 1 out of 5 blades picked is dull, because from your selection of 5, you only need one defective to decide on replacing all.

So if you look at this from another perspective, you have only one event that makes it so you don't change the blades: that 5 out 5 blades picked are sharp. You also know that the probability of changing the blades plus the probability of not changing them is equal to 100%, because that involves all the events possible.

P(at least 1 dull blade out of 5)+Probability(no dull blades out of 5)=1

P(at least 1 dull blade)=1-P(no dull blades)

But the event of picking one blade is dependent of the previous picking, meaning there is no chance of picking the same blade twice.

So you have 38/48 on getting a sharp one on your first pick, then 37/47 (since you remove 1 sharp from the possibilities, and 1 from the whole lot), and so on.

Also since are consecutive events, you need to multiply the events.

The probability that the assembly is replaced the first day is:

P(at least 1 dull blade)=1-P(no dull blades)

P(at least 1 dull blade)=1-(\frac{38}{48}* \frac{37}{47} *\frac{36}{46}*\frac{35}{45}*\frac{34}{44})

P(at least 1 dull blade)=1-0.2931

P(at least 1 dull blade)=0.7068

5 0
3 years ago
Please answer this someone I’m desperate
ycow [4]
Coordinates: (3, -3)
this point R would be the same distance that point P is from point Q, fulfilling the statement of it being an isosceles triangle
8 0
3 years ago
What is the value of x?<br> Please show the steps
nordsb [41]
Let D be the endpoint of the angle bisector opposite A on lying on side BC. The angle bisector theorem states that the ratio of BD to CD is equal to the ratio of AB to AC. In this case, you have

\dfrac{2x-1}{3x}=\dfrac9{15}

(This is the same equation that you have, it's just rearranged.)

Multiply both sides by 3x and 15.

15\times3x\times\dfrac{2x-1}{3x}=15\times3x\times\dfrac9{15}
15(2x-1)=3x\times9

Now you can solve for x.

30x-15=27x
3x=15
x=5
6 0
3 years ago
Number 17 what does written form mean?
Elden [556K]
It literally means writing it out: seventeen
3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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