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kondaur [170]
3 years ago
14

Help me please i dont know

Mathematics
1 answer:
sergejj [24]3 years ago
7 0
<h3>Answer:  Median = 6</h3>

==========================================================

Explanation:

Sort the values from smallest to largest: {2, 5, 6, 10, 10}

Now cross off the first and last values to get this smaller set: {5, 6, 10}

Repeat the process one more time and we get this: {6}

This shows 6 is the middle most item of the original sorted set above. Therefore, 6 is the median.

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PLEASE HELP IM BEGGING YOU !!!!!!! Which value would solve for k for the equation y=kk in the graph below?
Tresset [83]

Answer:

a: 1/6

Step-by-step explanation:

7 0
3 years ago
According to a​ study, nearly 80​% of workers in law libraries are satisfied with their job. Assume the true proportion of law l
Volgvan

Answer:

0.618

Step-by-step explanation:

This is a binomial distribution. We are to determine the probability of people unsatisfied. If we denote the probability of being satisfied with q, then q=0.8. Let p be the probability of being unsatisfied. Then p+q=1

p=1-q =1-0.8=0.2

Since the random sample is 20 and p is small enough, we can use the Poisson probability function

P(X=x) = \dfrac{e^{-\lambda}\lambda^x}{x!}

where \lambda is the mean and is given by \lambda=np=20\times0.2=4.

Denoting the probability of at most 4 unsatisfied with P(x\le4),

P(x\le4)=P(x=0)+P(x=1)+P(x=2)+P(x=3)+P(x=4)

P(x=0)= \dfrac{e^{-4}4^0}{0!} = e^{-4}

P(x=1)= \dfrac{e^{-4}4^1}{1!} = 4e^{-4}

P(x=2)= \dfrac{e^{-4}4^2}{2!} = 8e^{-4}

P(x=3)= \dfrac{e^{-4}4^3}{3!} = e^{-4}\dfrac{32}{3}

P(x=4)= \dfrac{e^{-4}4^4}{4!} = e^{-4}\dfrac{32}{3}

P(x\le4)=e^{-4}(1+4+8+\dfrac{32}{3}+\dfrac{32}{3})=0.018\times34.33 = 0.618

8 0
4 years ago
Which of the following are true statements.
BartSMP [9]
... ? Not really sure use a calculator
4 0
3 years ago
Can someone answer this question please please help me I really need it if it’s correct I will mark you brainliest .
Tomtit [17]

Answer:

spry

Step-by-step explanation:

i think this because spry means active lively so even tho shes in crutches shes still moving around the house

8 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
If 36 inches is = to 1 yard how many yards are there in 432 inches?
atroni [7]

Answer:

12

Step-by-step explanation:

Easy! All you have to do is divide 432 by 36.

432 / 36 = 12

So, there are 12 yards in 432 inches.


7 0
3 years ago
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