Answer:
E. 1.20
Explanation:
The formula and the computation of the debt-equity ratio is shown below:
Debt equity ratio = (Total debt ÷ Shareholders’ Equity)
where,
Total debt = $348,092
And, the shareholder equity would be
= Total assets - total debt
= $638,727 - $348,092
= $290,635
So, the debt - equity ratio would be
= $348,092 ÷ $290,635
= 1.20
Answer:
a.
January 1 Cash 720000 Dr
Discount on Bonds Payable 30000 Dr
Bonds Payable 750000 Cr
b.
January 1 Cash 772500 Dr
Bonds Payable 750000 Cr
Premium on Bonds Payable 22500 Cr
Explanation:
a.
When the bonds are issued at 96, this means that they are issued at 96% of the face value of the bond which is 750000 * 0.96 = 720000
So, the cash received from issuing the bonds is 720000. As the face value of the bonds is 750000 which will be recorded as bonds payable, the difference between the cash received and the face value is the discount amount which will be debited.
b.
When the bonds are issued at 103, this means that they are issued at 103% of the face value of the bond which is 750000 * 1.03 = 772500
So, the cash received from issuing the bonds is 772500. As the face value of the bonds is 750000 which will be recorded as bonds payable, the difference between the cash received and the face value is the premium amount which will be credited.
Answer:
Many managers describe performance appraisal as the responsibility that they like least. Why is this so?
it might be so because managers may feel that performance appraisal is not as productive as other activities, or because they lack the personal skills, or the motivation, to engage in that activity.
What could be done to improve the situation?
Managers should be taught that performance appraisal can be a very effective and productive method for the firm. When workers are praised for their work (when they deserve it), they are likely to be happier in the workplace, and it has been shown by countless studies that happier workers are also more productive.
Answer:
- <em>The cash flow stream from investment X has higher present value than the the cash flow stream from investm Y.</em>
Explanation:
<u></u>
<u>1. Present value of investment X</u>
- Annual payment: C = $4,200
- Number of years: t = 8
- Rate: r = 5%
- PV₁ = ?
Formula:
![PV=C\times [\dfrac{1}{r}-\dfrac{1}{r(1+r)^t}]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=PV%3DC%5Ctimes%20%5B%5Cdfrac%7B1%7D%7Br%7D-%5Cdfrac%7B1%7D%7Br%281%2Br%29%5Et%7D%5D)
Substitute and compute:
![PV_1=\$ 4,200\times [\dfrac{1}{0.05}-\dfrac{1}{0.05(1+0.05)^8}]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=PV_1%3D%5C%24%204%2C200%5Ctimes%20%5B%5Cdfrac%7B1%7D%7B0.05%7D-%5Cdfrac%7B1%7D%7B0.05%281%2B0.05%29%5E8%7D%5D)
<u>2. Present value of investment Y</u>
- Annual payment: C = $6,100
- Number of years: t = 5
- Rate: r = 5%
Formula:
Substitute and compute:
![PV_2=\$ 6,200\times [\dfrac{1}{0.05}-\dfrac{1}{0.05(1+0.05)^5}]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=PV_2%3D%5C%24%206%2C200%5Ctimes%20%5B%5Cdfrac%7B1%7D%7B0.05%7D-%5Cdfrac%7B1%7D%7B0.05%281%2B0.05%29%5E5%7D%5D)
Hence, the cash flow stream from investment X has higher present value than the the cash flow stream from investm Y.
