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3 years ago

Menlove Corporation has provided the following cost data for last year when 100,000 units were produced and sold:

Business

1 answer:

Nezavi [6.7K]3 years ago

3 0

Answer:

Net operating income= $405,000

Explanation:

First, we need to calculate the unitary variable cost:

Total variable cost= 650,000 - 100,000 - 100,000= $450,000

Unitary variable cost= 450,000 / 100,000

Unitary variable cost= $4.5

Total fixed cost= 100,000 + 100,000= $200,000

Now, the net operating income for 110,000 units:

Sales= 10*110,000= 1,100,000

Total variable cost= 110,000*4.5= (495,000)

Total contribution margin= 605,000

Total fixed cost= 200,000

Net operating income= $405,000

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Flauer [41]

Answer:

The correct answer is letter "E": Accessory equipment.

Explanation:

Accessory equipment comes with certain products but does not influence their performance. Removing accessory equipment from the good it is attached to does not damage the product. Accessory equipment is nonexpendable and not used for the production of an item.

When it comes to shipping, pallets can be considered accessory equipment since they help organizing the products being delivered reducing costs.

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3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Investors who acquire preferred stock: Multiple select question. will receive more dividends than common stockholders. have pref

8_murik_8 [283]

Investors who acquire preferred stock Investors who acquire preferred stock.

A preferred stock is an hybrid of a stock and a bond. It is a stock in which the holders of the stock have no voting rights. Also, when dividends are being paid, preferred shareholders are paid before common shareholders. Creditors have preference over preferred shareholders.

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Preferred stock investors usually receive a higher dividend compared with common shareholders.
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A similar question was answered here: brainly.com/question/25258600

8 0

2 years ago

A house is constructed in a neighborhood that is substantially larger than the existing houses. Based on the value principle of

Levart [38]

Answer: (2) Conformity

Explanation:

The conformity is one of the principle value and it basically refers to the behavior, attitude and the beliefs for the social and the political group.

The term conformity is basically used to describe the person behavior and also beliefs so that the person are able to fit in the specific groups.

It is the process of matching the norms that are implicit and shared by the individual groups for the interaction and this principle value are adversely affected.

Therefore, Option (2) is correct.

7 0

3 years ago

your local pawn shop loans money at an annual rate of 24 percent and compounds interest weekly. What is the actual rate being ch

Alika [10]

Answer:

27%

Explanation:

The actual rate being charge on these loans is the effective annual rate and the formula to calculate it is:

i=(1+(r/m))^m−1

i= effective annual rate

r= interest rate in decimal form=0.24

m=number of compounding periods per year= 52 (a year has 52 weeks).

i=(1+(0.24/52))^52-1

i=1.27-1

i=0.27

According to this, the answer is that the actual rate being charge on these loans is 27%.

6 0

3 years ago

16. GDP Growth Consider the following data on U.S. GDP: Year GDP (Billions of current dollars) (Billions of 2009 dollars) 2011 1

dmitriy555 [2]

Answer:

The percentage change in nominal GDP from 2013 to 2014 was 4.29%

The percentage change in real GDP from 2012 to 2013 was 1.48%

The percentage change in real GDP from 2012 to 2013 was higher than the percentage change in real GDP from 2011 to 2012. FALSE

Explanation:

In order to calculate this we just have to calculate the percentages with a rule of thirds:

$\frac{GDP1}{100}= \frac{GDP2}{x}$

To calculate the first one we use the nominal GDP which is the GDP with the current market value:

$\frac{GDP1}{100}= \frac{GDP2}{x}\\\frac{16,663.2}{100}= \frac{17,348.1 }{x}\\x=\frac{(100)(17,348.1}{16,663.2} \\x=4.29%$

To calculate the change in real GDP we use the values adapted to a pre-agreed monetary value, in this case the dollar at 2009:

$\frac{GDP1}{100}= \frac{GDP2}{x}\\\frac{15,354.6}{100}= \frac{15,583.3}{x}\\x=\frac{(100)(15,583.3}{15,354.6} \\x=1.48%$

To calculate the 2011 to 2012 we insert the values:

$\frac{GDP1}{100}= \frac{GDP2}{x}\\\frac{ 15,020.6}{100}= \frac{15,354.6}{x}\\x=\frac{(100)(15,354.6}{ 15,020.6} \\x=2.22%$

So with this we know that it is wasn´t higher the percentage change from 2012-2013, than that of 2011-2012

5 0

3 years ago