Inventory turnover = Cost of goods sold / Average Inventory
Average Inventory = (Beginning Inventory + Ending Inventory) / 2
= ($20,000 + $40,000) / 2
= $30,000
Inventory turnover = $360,000 / $30,000
= 12 times.
Answer: b. 36 years under scenario A, versus 18 years under scenario B.
Explanation:
The Rule of 72 is a rule in finance that will allows for the calculation of how long it will take for an investment to double given its interest rate.
The time is calculated by dividing 72 by the interest rate in question.
Scenario A
= 72/2
= 36 years.
Scenario B
= 72/4
= 18 years.
<span>Checking the upholstery is not one of the important pre-trip tasks. This is not something that will affect anything other than the passenger comfort during the trip. Making sure that one has enough gas and other fluids in the car is much more important to the overall trip.</span>
Answer:
Financial disadvantage of 138,600
Explanation:
![\left[\begin{array}{cccc}&produce&buy&Differential\\$Purchase&&-447,000&-447,000\\$Avoidable\: Cost&-283,400&0&283,400\\$Unavoidable\: Cost&-114,400&-114,400&0\\$Total Cost&-397,800&-561,400&-163,600\\$additional segment&0&25,000&25,000\\$Net Effect&-397,800&-536,400&-138,600\\\end{array}\right]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cleft%5B%5Cbegin%7Barray%7D%7Bcccc%7D%26produce%26buy%26Differential%5C%5C%24Purchase%26%26-447%2C000%26-447%2C000%5C%5C%24Avoidable%5C%3A%20Cost%26-283%2C400%260%26283%2C400%5C%5C%24Unavoidable%5C%3A%20Cost%26-114%2C400%26-114%2C400%260%5C%5C%24Total%20Cost%26-397%2C800%26-561%2C400%26-163%2C600%5C%5C%24additional%20segment%260%2625%2C000%2625%2C000%5C%5C%24Net%20%20Effect%26-397%2C800%26-536%2C400%26-138%2C600%5C%5C%5Cend%7Barray%7D%5Cright%5D)
The allocate cost and teh depreciation cost will be unavoidable, so should be considered as a cost for the purchase option
Also the inocme from teh additional segment is only considered for the purchase option
<u>The avoidable cost will be:</u>
Direct Materials
Direct Labors
Variable overhead
Supervisor
Thse cost are zero in the purchase escenario
Answer:
d. beta did a better job of explaining the returns than standard deviation
Explanation:
Beta measures the systemic risk associated with the particular investment, it do not compute the total risk associated, which is more logical.
Standard deviation computes the total risk associated.
Some risk is natural, like the risk of floods, natural calamities, earthquake, etc:
That risk shall not counted as for comparison as that is associated universally. Further, the risk associated with particular factors like bankruptcy of a company, or some legal case issue of a company are precisely described by beta coefficient.
Thus, beta provides better details about explaining the returns.