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siniylev [52]
3 years ago
13

The table below shows the amount paid for different numbers of items.

Mathematics
1 answer:
Liono4ka [1.6K]3 years ago
8 0
I think is B
Hopefully this helps!!
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Abstract Algebra
Sergio039 [100]

Answer:

1.No, because inverse does not exist.

2.No, because inverse does not exist.

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given that X be  a set and let P(X) be the power set of X.

a. We have to tell P(X) with binary operation

A*B=A\cap B form  a group.

Suppose, x={1,2}

P(X)={\phi,{1},{2},{1,2}}

1.Closure  property:A\cap B\in P(X)

{1}\cap {2}=\phi \in P(X)

It is satisfied for all A,B\in P(X)

2.Associative property:(A\cap B)\cap C=A\cap (B\cap C)

If A={1},B={2},C={1,2}

A\cap(B\cap C)={1}\cap({2}\cap{1,2})={1}\cap {2}=\phi

(A\cap B)\cap C=({1}\cap{2})\cap{1,2}=\phi\cap{1,2}=\phi

Hence, P(X) satisfied the associative property.

3.Identity :A\cap B=A Where B is identity element of P(X)

A\cap X=A

It is satisfied for every element A in P(X).

Hence, X is identity element in  P(X)

4.Inverse :A\cap B=X Where B is an inverse element of A in P(x)

It can not be possible for every element that satisfied A\cap B=X

Hence, inverse does not exist.

Therefore, P(X) is not a  group w.r.t to given binary operation.

2.We have to tell P(X) with the binary operation

A*B=A\cup B form a group

Similarly,

For set X={1,2}

P(X)={\phi,{1},{2},{1,2}}

1.Closure property:If A and B are belongs to P(X) then A\cup B\in P(X) for all A and B belongs to P(X).

2.Associative property:A\cup (B\cup C)=(A\cup B)\cup C

If A={1},B={2},C{1,2}

A\cup B={1}\cup{2}={1,2}

(A\cup B)\cup C={1,2}\cup{1,2}={1,2}

B\cup C={2}\cup{1,2}={1,2}

A\cup (B\cup C)={1}\cup{1,2}={1,2}

Hence, P(X) satisfied the associative property.

3.Identity :A\cup B=A Where B is identity element of P(X)

Only \phi is that element for every A in P(X) that satisfied A\cup B=A

Hence, \phi is identity element of P(X) w.r.t union.

4.Inverse element :

A\cup B=\phi where B is  an inverse element of A in P(X)

It is not possible for every element that satisfied the property.

Hence, inverse does not exist for each element in P(X).

Therefore, P(X) is not  a group w.r.t binary operation.

6 0
3 years ago
The table below shows the total cost for purchasing a certain number of equally-priced concert tickets.Total cost (in dollars) |
olga nikolaevna [1]

To find an equation to describe the relationship between t and c you:

1. Find what is the dependent variable and the independent variable

In this case the total cost of the tickets depend of the number of tickets. Then:

Dependent variable is C

Independent variable is T

-----------------------------------------------------------

You can see in the table that the difference between the cost of the tickects is 165 for every 3 tickets. you find this by substracting the data in every column, as follow:

Then, the equation will be a lineal equation with a slope of:

m=\frac{165}{3}=55

You use a point of the lineal relationship to find the equation:

(2,110) t1=2 c1= 110

You use the next formula:

y=mx+b

You replace the coordinates of the point and find the value of b:

110=55(2)+bb=110-110=0

The equation is:c=55t

7 0
1 year ago
Help only if you know the answer
ladessa [460]

Answer:

the answer is 2nd option 6^5-7=6^-2

6 0
3 years ago
9. On a game show, there are 16 questions: 8 easy, 5 medium-hard, and 3 hard. If contestants are given questions
just olya [345]

Answer:

\frac{7}{30}\approx0.23

Step-by-step explanation:

Given:

Number of questions (N) = 16

Number of easy questions (E) = 8

Number of medium-hard questions (M) = 5

Number of hard questions (H) = 3

Now, the probability of getting the first question as easy question is given as:

P(E1)=\frac{\textrm{Number of easy questions}}{\textrm{Total questions}}\\\\P(E1)=\frac{E}{N}=\frac{8}{16}=0.5

Now, probability of getting the second question as easy question is given as:

P(E2)=\frac{\textrm{Number of easy questions left}}{\textrm{Total questions left}}\\\\P(E2)=\frac{E-1}{N-1}=\frac{7}{15}

Now, probability that the first two contestants will get easy questions is given by the product of P(E1)\ and\ P(E2). So,

P(2\ easy\ questions)=P(E1)\times P(E2)\\\\P(2\ easy\ questions)=\frac{1}{2}\times \frac{7}{15}\\\\P(2\ easy\ questions)=\frac{7}{30}\approx 0.23

Therefore, the probability that the first two contestants will get easy questions is \frac{7}{30}\approx0.23

7 0
3 years ago
Lola needs to buy apples for her bakery as they are having a pie competition!
Crank
She will need 30 apples more and 200 apples in total.
5 0
3 years ago
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