Answer:
38°
Step-by-step explanation:
Using the Cosine rule in Δ ABC
cos A = 
where a, b and c are the sides of the triangle.
Here a = 5, b = 3 and c = 7 , thus
cos A =
=
=
, thus
∠ A =
(
) ≈ 38°
Answer:
<u>Cities A and B are 1,125 miles apart</u>
Step-by-step explanation:
1. Let's review the information given to us to answer the question correctly:
Distance between A and B in the map = 5 inches
Distance between C and D in the map = 4 inches
Actual distance between C and D = 900 miles
2. How many miles apart are cities A and B?
We will solve the question, using Direct Rule of Three, as follows:
Distance in the map Actual distance
A - B 5 inches x
C - D 4 inches 900 miles
***************************************************
4x = 900 * 5
4x = 4,500
x = 4,500/4
x = 1,125 miles
<u>Cities A and B are 1,125 miles apart</u>
Answer:
The answer is <u>g = 0.5</u>
Step-by-step explanation:
1. Your equation is :
<em>9+3.5g=11-0.5g</em>
2. First, multiply both sides by ten
<em>9 * 10 + 3.5 * 10 = 11 * 10 - 0.5 * 10</em>
3. Next we refine the equation
<em>90 + 35g = 110 - 5g</em>
4. Now, lets subtract 90 from both sides
<em>90 + 35g - 90 = 110 - 5g - 90</em>
5. Simplify
<em>35g + 5g = -5g + 20 + 5g</em>
6. We then add 5g to both sides
<em>35g + 5g = -5g + 20 + 5g</em>
7. Simplify again
<em>40g = 20</em>
8. Now, divide both sides by 40
<em>40g/40 = 20/40</em>
9. And finally, simplify once again to get your final answer.
<em>g = 1/2 or 0.5</em>
I hope this helped :)
Answer:
read below
Step-by-step explanation:
Alright, archtan /
tan
−
1
(
x
)
is the inverse of tangent. Tan is
sin
cos
. Like the inverse of sin, the inverse of tan is also restricted to quadrants 1 and 4.
Knowing this we are solving for the inverse of tan -1. We are basically being asked the question what angle/radian does tan(-1) equal. Using the unit circle we can see that tan(1)= pi/4.
Since the "Odds and Evens Identity" states that tan(-x) = -tan(x). Tan(-1)= -pi/4.
Knowing that tan is negative in quadrants 2 and 4. the answer is in either of those two quadrants. BUT!!! since inverse of tan is restricted to quadrants 1 and 4 we are left with the only answer -pi/4.
the answer is m=-3n-5/2 or n=2m+5/6