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Paraphin [41]
3 years ago
8

Which of the following would you use to measure the wavelength of this longitudinal wave? ( This is Physics, but nobody answers

my questions when i put it in that subject)

Mathematics
1 answer:
Mashcka [7]3 years ago
7 0
Letter c measures one wave length
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A rectangular prism has a length of 20 in., a width of 2 in., and a height of 3 1/4 in. The prism is filled with cubes that have
STALIN [3.7K]
5,400 cubes is needed to fill the rectangular prism.
3 0
3 years ago
Can you draw an isosceles triangle with only one 80 degree angle. Is this the only possibility or can another triangle be drawn
GREYUIT [131]

Answer:

The correct answer is yes, we can draw an isosceles triangle with only one 80° angle. NO this is not the only possibility.

Step-by-step explanation:

A triangle is a three sided figure. There are three types of triangles: Equilateral, Isosceles and Scalene triangle. The sum of angles in a triangle is 180°.

If all sides have equal length then it is an equilateral triangle. All angles of this triangle are equal.

If two sides are equal then it is an isosceles triangle. Two opposite angles are equal.

If none of the angles and sides are equal then we call it a scalene triangle.

Given one angle of the triangle is 80°.

There exists two possibilities. One, 80° is the equal angle and 80° is not the equal angle.

Required Case : 80° is not the equal angle, i.e. only one 80° angle.

We are to draw an isosceles triangle (say ABC) with one angle say ∠A as 80°.

Other two angles (∠B and ∠C) are 50° each as the other two angles are supposed to be equal. (\frac{180-80}{2}°).

Now let us consider side AB and AC be of length say a. These two sides are equal.

Thus now we have successfully constructed an isosceles triangle with only one 80° angle.

We can get infinitely many isosceles triangle by just varying the length of the equal side.

5 0
3 years ago
Interpret the coefficient PayDay, 96.68. If you were part of the analytics team at Caesars, how would you explain this coefficie
taurus [48]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

solution attached below

3 0
3 years ago
The given bar graph shows the percentage of U.S. women in the labor force from 1960 through 2010. The function f left parenthesi
ipn [44]

Answer:

Half of year 2043

Step-by-step explanation:

The function is: f(x) = 3.5√x + 38

where f(x) represents the percentage of U.S. women in the labor force x years after 1960.

Replacing f(x) = 70 and isolating x, we get:

70 = 3.5√x + 38

3.5√x = 70 - 38

√x = 32/3.5

x = 9.14²

x = 83.5

This means, in year 1960 + 83.5 = 2043.5, that is, at half of year 2043

3 0
3 years ago
PLEASE HELP!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!
Anna [14]
4 inches, wryyyyyyyyyyy
3 0
3 years ago
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