Answer:
Both debts ($11,000 + $16,000), totalled $27,000 will be classified as the Current Liabilities (CL) in the balance sheet.
Explanation:
Liabilities could be classified or recognized as the current or the long term liabilities on the balance sheet grounded on when they are expected to be satisfied.
Liabilities which are expected to be satisfied within one operating cycle or 12 months, which ever is longer and satisfied by using the current assets are recognized as the current liabilities. And all other liabilities are known as long term liabilities.
Under this case, the operating cycle is 18 months, which is the dividing line among the long and current term. So, both the liabilities are current liabilities as are satisfied within the duration of 18 months.
The answer is A i believe , because its supposed to show you what your being credited for
Answer:
$4,546.35
Explanation:
We use the PMT formula that is to be presented in the attachment. kindly find out below:
Provided that,
Present value = $36,875
Future value or Face value = $0
Rate = 4%
NPER = 10 years
The formula is shown below:
= -PMT(Rate;NPER;PV;FV;type)
So, after solving this, the annual payment required is $4,546.35
Answer:
8.38%
Explanation:
We use the RATE formula in this question which is presented on the attachment below:
Given that,
Present value = $1,139
Future value or Face value = $1,000
PMT = 1,000 × 9.9% ÷ 2 = $49.50
NPER = 18 years × 2 = 36 years
The formula is shown below:
= Rate(NPER;PMT;-PV;FV;type)
The present value come in negative
So, after solving this, the coupon rate is
= 4.19% × 2
= 8.38%
Answer:
explicit costs = $1,260,000
the implicit costs = $8,400,000
total costs = $9,660,000
Explanation:
the underwriter's explicit costs = total number of shares x initial price x % charged by underwriter = 700,000 x $24 x 7.5% = $1,260,000
the implicit costs = (market price - initial price) x total number of shares = ($36 - $24) x 700,000 = $8,400,000
total costs = $9,660,000
