This question doesn't make sence to me could you explain
900,000+40,000+300+1= 940,301.. The answer is D.)
Answer:
28 times
Step-by-step explanation:
On a fair die, the probability of rolling a 6, the only number greater than 5, is 1/6. So in 168 rolls of this die, Malachy can expect a 6 on 1/6 × 168, or 28 times.
1) let both have x ,
so putting in eqn ;
4x+0.50 = 9x-3
5x=2.50
x=0.50
therefore both have 50 p in the beginning !!
2) let the number be x
so in eqn;
(x+18)/2=5x
x+18=10x
9x=18
x=2
so the number must be 2 !!
if you have still any problem, comment !!
25 percent of x is equal to $1631.24
.25*4 is equal to 100 percent
Substitute
1631.24*4=x
x=6524.96
