Answer:
59% - a)increase - b)decrease
Explanation:
First of all, we should say that the real exchange rate is calculated by multiplying the nominal exchange rate for the price index and then divide it by the price index of the other country. In another language, using this case as the example, the first nominal exchange rate is 50, as you need 50 rupees to buy 1 dollar. So to calculate the real exchange rate you need to multiply 50 by 100 (the price index of USA) and then divide it by 100 (the price index of India). Note that both price indexes are 100, just a coincidence for making easier the question. Result: 50.
Then we calculate the next real exchange rate: multiply 60 (the new nominal exchange rate) by 106 (the new US price index) and divide by 80 (the new India price index). This throws a result of 79,5. We see a 29,5 increase, and 29,5 represents 59% of 50 (the initial real exchange rate).
Then both questions is more common sense than the reading of the results we just calculated. For example, nominal exchange rate changed from 50 to 60, so the people in India will now have to collect 10 more rupees to buy the same dollar. Let's suppose a pair of shoes in USA costs 40 dollars. Before, Indians needed 2000 rupees to buy it. Now they will need 2400 rupees... it will be more expensive. Plus, the prices of USA had gone up 6%, which means the pair of shoes will now cost 42,4 dollars... even more expensive! As products in USA are more expensive, we can expect that India's consumption of American goods will decrease (law of demand).
With the American consumption of Indian goods happens the opposite, the goods in India became cheaper (price index has fallen), and for the Americans, the same dollars they had will buy more rupees when the exchange rate changed to 60.
It is false that real estate is a great way to investment for everyone, particularly since the money is more liquid than common stocks.
Answer:
The Porter Diamond model explains the factors that can drive competitive advantage for one national market or economy over another. It can be used both to describe the sources of a nation's competitive advantage and the path to obtaining such an advantage.
Answer:
a. 10.14%
Explanation:
WACC = wE*rE + wP*rP + wD*rD(1-tax) whereby;
w= weight of...
r = cost of..
Find the market values;
Common equity(E) = 5,000,000* 8 = 40,000,000
Preferred stock(P) = 10,000,000
Debt (D) = 100,000 *1000 *0.96 = 96,000,000
Total value = 146,000,000
Therefore;
wE= 0.2740
wP = 0.0685
wD = 0.6575
Cost of capital;
rE = 19% or 0.19
rP = 15% or 0.15
rD = 9% or 0.09
WACC = (0.2740*0.19) + (0.0685 * 0.15) + [0.6575*0.09(1-0.34)]
WACC = 0.0521 + 0.0103 + 0.0391
WACC = 0.1015 or about 10.14%
Answer:
The answer is "Option A"
Explanation:
In this Act, the U.S. Congress in 2002 to financing offers against the risk of corporate accounting fraud. To enhance account statements on firms as well as reduce financial crimes, its Sarbanes Oxley Act (SOX) authorized information pertinent.
- The SOX has been introduced in the early 2000s throughout responding to its accounting irregularities.
- The Shareholder commitment within financial reports has been shattered by controversies in everything from Enron, Tyco, and WorldCom and a rewrite in regulatory requirements.