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Bess [88]
3 years ago
15

Penny is paid a gross wage of $2,648.00 on a monthly basis. She is single and is entitled to 2 withholding allowances. How much

income tax, social security, and Medicare will be withheld based on the combined wage bracket tables in Exhibits 9-3 and 9-4 from your text
Business
1 answer:
Damm [24]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

The combined wage bracket tables in Exhibits 9-3 and 9-4 is missing hence I will use 2014 tax year

answer :

a) Federal income tax withheld

 = 75.6 + ( 1989.60 - 944 )*15%  = $232.44

b) social security

 6% * 1989.6 = $119.38

c) Medicare

1.45% * 1989.6 = $28.85

Explanation:

For a single individual

Two withholding allowance = $329.20 * 2  = $658.40

Gross Pay = $2648

withholding allowance = $658.40

Subject to withholding = $2648 - $658.40 = $1989.60

a) Federal income tax withheld

 = 75.6 + ( 1989.60 - 944 )*15%  = $232.44

b) social security

 6% * 1989.6 = $119.38

c) Medicare

1.45% * 1989.6 = $28.85

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Jane Doe earns $58,800 per year and has applied for a(n) $99,000, 30-year mortgage at 9 percent interest, paid monthly. Property
Mashcka [7]

Answer:

GDS ratio is 28.12% and is less than the maximum of 30%,hence Jane would be able to get the mortgage

Explanation:

The gross debt service ratio is a measure of the ease with which mortgage holders can repay their housing loan.It compares the yearly property obligations with the yearly income of the mortgage holder.

Gross Debt Service ratio=yearly obligations/yearly income

yearly obligations=property taxes+yearly mortgage repayment

property taxes is $6,900

mortgage repayment=pmt(rate,nper,-pv,fv)

rate is 9%

nper is the duration mortgage of 30 years

pv is the present value of mortgage

fv is future value of mortgage,it is not known,hence taken as zero

=pmt(9%,30,-99000,0)=$9,636.30  

yearly obligations=$6,900+$9,636.30=$ 16,536.30  

GDS = 16,536.30/58,800=28.12%

5 0
3 years ago
Interest expense is not: Multiple Choice Incurred on long-term liabilities. Reported on the income statement. A fixed expense. L
ankoles [38]

Interest expense is not Incurred on long-term liabilities.

Option i) Incurred on long-term liability.

Interest expenses are not recorded in the balance sheet. It should be recorded in the income statement.

The interest expense is a non-operating expense recorded on the expenses side of the income statement and it does not show as notes payable.

The interest expense is shown as a fixed cost or fixed expense it will be changed as based on the short-term changes or completion of payable.

The interest expense shows a factor in determining a company's borrowing risk.

Learn more about interest expenses at

brainly.com/question/12553420

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5 0
2 years ago
Fredrico has to lead a training for his company. He wants to include a visual element to help engage his audience. What type of
olga_2 [115]

Answer: The correct answer is a PowerPoint presentation.

Explanation: The best method to include a visual element to a training is by using PowerPoint. This is a Microsoft program that allows you to create engaging visual presentations. In addition to text, it allows the creator to include things like photos, text effects and videos in the presentation.

7 0
3 years ago
The current spot exchange rate is $1.55/£ and the three-month forward rate is $1.50/£. Based on your analysis of the exchange ra
Misha Larkins [42]

Answer:

b. Buy £1,000,000 forward for $1.50/£.

Explanation:

Let's say for instance, we agree to make purchase of €1,000,000 and then forward for $1.50/€ and we assume that the price turns out to become $1.62/€ in three months time, the expected profit will be $12,000 = €1,000,000 ($1.62 - $1.50)As we can see, answer d looks convincing from an accounting standpoint, but it is wrong because the question asks us to make money with a forward contract, not by holding a particular spot. The correct option should be option b.

4 0
3 years ago
XYZ Company leased equipment to West Corporation under a lease agreement that qualifies as a finance lease to West but not as a
melomori [17]

Answer:

132,000$ will be recorded by west as amortization expense for the year.

Explanation:

Depreciation/amortization is systematic allocation of cost of asset over its useful life. In this case asset cost is not given so we assume that PV of lease payment is equal to market value (660,000 dollars) of asset.

In case of leased asset the useful life taken for calculation of depreciation is lower of 1) Useful life 2) Lease term as per applicable accounting standards.

So we have taken 5 years to charge depreciation on Straight line method.

Hence by dividing 660000 by five we get our answer.

7 0
2 years ago
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