Answer:
c.(1) Impossible c.(ll) unlikely
Answer:
51 minutes!
Step-by-step explanation:
<em>Hello there fellow human!</em>
First off, you convert kilometers to miles.
1 kilometer = 0.62 miles; therefore, 8 kilometers = 8*0.62 = 4.96 miles
Next, you determine how many minutes it takes for John to cover 1 mile
which is gotten by dividing 41 by 4;
41 / 4 = 10.25. So it takes 10.25 minutes to cover 1 mile. (minutes per mile)
Next, you multiply the number of minutes taken to cover <em>1 mile (10.25)</em> by <em>4.96 miles (8 kilometers)</em>, 10.25 * 4.96 = 50.84 minutes. Rounding that to the nearest minute, you get 51 minutes which make sense because the amount of time taken to cover 4 miles (41 minutes) will be shorter than the time taken to cover 4.96 miles (50.84 minutes) since 4 miles is smaller than 4.96 miles. DIRECT PROPORTION
All calculations where done with a calculator. If you don't have that, you can always divide manually and convert to fraction.
Answer:
<em>6 cm </em>
Step-by-step explanation:
<u><em>I don't know may I use the trigonometry functions, therefor I'm going to use Pythagorean theorem and property of 30°-60°-90° triangle.</em></u>
m∠ACB = 120° ⇒ m∠ACD = 60° ⇒ m∠DAC = 30°
DC is opposite to 30° angle ⇒ AC = CB = 8 cm
From ΔADC: AD² = 64 - 16 = 48 ; AD = 4√3 cm
ΔACB is isosceles ⇒ m∠CAB = m∠CBA = 30°
m∠DAH = m∠DAC + m∠CBA = 2(30°) = 60° ⇒ m∠ADH = 30° ⇒ AH = 4√3 ÷ 2 = 2√3 cm
From ΔADH: <em>DH</em> = 
= √36 = <em>6 cm</em>
All you have to do is add those two numbers given and subtract by 180. all of the angles shall add up to 180 if not then you dic something wrong
