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matrenka [14]
4 years ago
14

Automated Data Processing (ADP) provides computer software and services to a host of companies, including automobile dealerships

. ADP charges dealerships a monthly lease for hardware, software, and support services, but does not charge for training the dealerships’ employees. Dealerships need only pay for their employees’ time and travel to ADP headquarters, where they attend "Software U" at no additional charge. The time and travel expenses paid by a dealership to train workers is an example of what type of specialized investment?
a. Dedicated asset
b. Site specificity
c. Physical-asset specificity
d. Human capital
Business
1 answer:
koban [17]4 years ago
5 0

Answer:

The answer is c) Physical-asset specificity

Explanation:

The asset specificity is defined as the degree in the investments made to support a need to have a higher value than they would have if they are redistributed for any other purpose. They are non-redistributable physical and human investments that are specialized and exclusive for a task. In the example of the exercise, employee training is a specific investment of assets, since it is more likely that your investment will have the same profitability in the management of software and hardware provided by ADP.

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podryga [215]
I need points, sorry
6 0
3 years ago
Suppose the growth of production in Country B follows Solow Model. Country B's production function is Y = F(K,L) = K0.5 L0.5 . C
BartSMP [9]

Answer:

80

Explanation:

Given the Solow Formula Y = K^{0.5} *L^{0.5} in the question, we have:

Capital K = 64

Labors L = 100

Substituting the number for K and L into the equation, we have:

Y=64^{0.5} *100^{0.5}

Y = 8 * 10

Y = 80

Please Note:

Country B's production function is Y = F(K,L) = K0.5 L0.5 is not correctly stated as the real Solow Model using equation format in the question. This has therefore been done under the explanation above and now correctly stated as Y = K^{0.5} *L^{0.5} .

3 0
4 years ago
What time is it when you see this
Anna71 [15]

Answer:

2:45 am

Explanation:

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Ace Company purchased a machine valued at $328,000 on August 1. The equipment has an estimated useful life of six years or 2.5 m
nlexa [21]

Answer:

A. $53,167

Explanation:

The computation of the depreciation expense under the straight-line method is shown below:

= (Original cost - residual value) ÷ (useful life)

= ($328,000 - $9,000) ÷ (6 years)

= ($319,000) ÷ (6 years)  

= $53,167

In this method, the depreciation is same for all the remaining useful life.

The estimated useful life in units is used in units of production method. Hence, it is ignored here.

6 0
4 years ago
You have just received a windfall from an investment you made in a​ friend's business. He will be paying you $ 10 comma 000 at t
Nookie1986 [14]

Answer:

a.The present value is $55.39 comma 000

b.The future value is $61.05 comma 000

Explanation:

a. the present value for this windfall of the investment will be calculated using the present value formula which is Pv = Fv/(1+i)^n

Pv depicts the present value which we are looking for,

Fv is the future value of the payments the individual receives which are $10 comma 0000 , $20 comma 000 and $30 comma 000.

i represents the interest rate per period which is 3.5%.

then we substitute these values on the above mentioned formula (values in comma 000):

Pv=  $10/(1+3.5%) + $20/(1+3.5%)^2 + $30/(1+3.5%)^3

      =$55.39 comma 000

that is the present value so we actually added the different present values for the amounts of the future values cause we get them in different times and they not the same.

b. we will use the future value formula to get the future value of the windfall which is Fv = Pv(1+i)^n

which the values still represent the above mentioned values so we substitute ( values in comma 000):

Fv= $10(1+3.5%)^1 + $20(1+3.5%)^2+ $30

    = $61.05 comma 000

we add future values for the three different amounts but we are told that we need to calculate the windfall value at the date of the last payment so $30 comma 000 will not accumulate any interest because we they will do that payment on the day they say we must calculate the value of the windfall on.

8 0
3 years ago
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