If the market for a good that sees its production costs and prices rise is inelastic, the quantity demanded will not change.
<h3>What is inelastic demand?</h3>
A good that has inelastic demand is one that will not see its demand change much when there is a price change.
This means that demand remains more or less the same even if prices rise. Examples of such goods are water and food. The product above will therefore not see its demand change by much.
Find out more on inelastic demand at brainly.com/question/24384825.
The thing that would interest him the most and is an advantage is that if one partner were to make a mistake, he would not be held accountable for it. Unlike the general partnership where everyone gets equal blame for the downfall of a company, in limited liability it is known what falls under whose jurisdiction and if someone causes the company to go bankrupt, the ones whose fault it's not can't get sued.
Answer:
59% - a)increase - b)decrease
Explanation:
First of all, we should say that the real exchange rate is calculated by multiplying the nominal exchange rate for the price index and then divide it by the price index of the other country. In another language, using this case as the example, the first nominal exchange rate is 50, as you need 50 rupees to buy 1 dollar. So to calculate the real exchange rate you need to multiply 50 by 100 (the price index of USA) and then divide it by 100 (the price index of India). Note that both price indexes are 100, just a coincidence for making easier the question. Result: 50.
Then we calculate the next real exchange rate: multiply 60 (the new nominal exchange rate) by 106 (the new US price index) and divide by 80 (the new India price index). This throws a result of 79,5. We see a 29,5 increase, and 29,5 represents 59% of 50 (the initial real exchange rate).
Then both questions is more common sense than the reading of the results we just calculated. For example, nominal exchange rate changed from 50 to 60, so the people in India will now have to collect 10 more rupees to buy the same dollar. Let's suppose a pair of shoes in USA costs 40 dollars. Before, Indians needed 2000 rupees to buy it. Now they will need 2400 rupees... it will be more expensive. Plus, the prices of USA had gone up 6%, which means the pair of shoes will now cost 42,4 dollars... even more expensive! As products in USA are more expensive, we can expect that India's consumption of American goods will decrease (law of demand).
With the American consumption of Indian goods happens the opposite, the goods in India became cheaper (price index has fallen), and for the Americans, the same dollars they had will buy more rupees when the exchange rate changed to 60.
Answer:
yield to maturity = 7.06%
Explanation:
yield to maturity (YTM) is calculated using the following formula:
YTM = {C + [(FV - PV) / n]} / [(FV + PV) / 2]
- FV = $2,000
- PV = $1,902.14
- C = $2,000 x 6.48% x 1/2 = $64.80
- n = 12 x 2 = 24
YTM = {64.80 + [(2,000 - 1,902.14) / 24]} / [(2,000 + 1,902.14) / 2] = (64.80 + 4.0775) / 1,951.07 = 0.0353 or 3.53% semianually or 7.06% annually
Since the bond sells at a discount, its yield to maturity will be higher than the coupon rate.
Answer:
See explanation section
Explanation:
The difference between buying shares and buying bonds are as follows:
1. Buying stock gives a person to own the company while buying a bond that provides a person to become a debt-holder of the company who can receive interest and get the entire amount in the future.
2. Purchasing stock gives an individual the voting right to elect the board of directors of a company. Buying bonds does not give voting rights to the bondholders.
3. Stock owners can receive the profit in the name of dividends. Bondholders do not receive any profit. Instead, they receive interest annually.
