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luda_lava [24]
3 years ago
15

Wellington Corp. has outstanding accounts receivable at year end totaling $6,500,000 and had sales on credit during the year of

$22,000,000. There is also a positive balance of $12,000 in the allowance for doubtful accounts. If the company estimates that 8% of its outstanding receivables will be uncollectible, and the company uses the percent of receivables method, what will be the amount of bad debt expense recognized for the year
Business
1 answer:
LuckyWell [14K]3 years ago
8 0

Answer: $520,000

Explanation:

A bad debt expense occurs when an economic entity which could be an individual or firm cannot collect a receivable because the said customer can't meet their obligations anymore.

The amount of bad debt expense recognized for the year will be the outstanding accounts receivable at year end multiplied by the percentage of uncollectible outstanding receivables. This will be:

= 8% × $6,500,000

= 8/100 × $6,500,000

= 0.08 × $6,500,000

= $520,000

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4 years ago
At the beginning of the current year, X Company had assets of $600, liabilities of $300, and common stock of $100. During the cu
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$250 is the answer

Explanation:

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3 years ago
Ace Leasing acquires equipment and leases it to customers under long-term sales-type leases. Ace earns interest under these arra
raketka [301]

Answer:

The lease payment will be for $ 113,751.173  during 5 years beginning at the moment the lease is signed

Explanation:

First, we discount the payment at the end of the lease

\frac{Maturity}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV  

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time        5 years

rate        0.06

\frac{150000}{(1 + 0.06)^{5} } = PV  

PV   112,088.7259

Now we subtract form the 620,000 to know the amount to be perceived form the lease payment:

620,000 - 112,089 = 507.911‬

Now we solve  the PMT which makes the annuity-due of 5 payment at the beginning of the period:

PV \div \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} (1+r)= C\\

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rate 0.06

[tex ]507,911 \div \frac{1-(1+0.06)^{-5} }{0.06}(+0.06) = C\\[/tex]

C  $ 113,751.173

3 0
3 years ago
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