<u>Answer:</u>
Liquidity ratios measure (C) the extent of a firm's financing with debt relative to entity.
<u>Explanation:</u>
Liquidity ratio is used in determining a company's ability to pay off all the current debts without taking or raising any external capital. It measures the company's ability whether the company is able to pay their debts or not through the calculation of "CURRENT RATIO" (It tells the investors how they can maximize the assets to satisfy their current debts), "QUICK RATIO" (It shows the company's ability to use it cash/assets and pay off its current debts. It is also known as acid test ratio) and "OPERATING CASH FLOW RATIO" (this helps in measuring how much the current debts can be paid off by the cash flow which is generated by the company's operation).
Answer:
The bond will not be called.
Explanation:
The yield to maturity (YTM of, is the internal rate of return (overall interest rate) earned by an investor who buys the bond today at the market price, assuming that the bond is held until maturity, and that the principal payments are made on schedule, it is equal to the current price of the bond.
YTM equals the expected rate of return under certain assumptions like the bond will not be called.
Answer:
d. work with technical personnel.
Explanation:
In the given scenario a manufacturer is making a new buy from a seller. This is a risky investment for the buyer because of uncertainty on how the product will perform and lack of technical know-how in operating the product.
The buyer therefore will require the seller to act as a consultant in case of issues arising from the use of the product, buying decision will take a long time because the buyer will want a good fit for their operations, and more work will be done with technical personnel to train them on how to use the product
Answer:
The correct option is b) USD to GBP; GBP to CHF; CHF to USD.
Explanation:
A triangular arbitrage can be described as the act of taking advantage of a foreign exchange market arbitrage opportunity created by a pricing difference between three different currencies.
A triangle arbitrage method entails three deals, with the first currency being converted to a second, the second currency being converted to a third, and the third currency being converted to the first.
In the question, USD is the first currency, GBP is the second currency, and CHF is the third currency. Based on the explanation above, the three steps which will create triangular arbitrage profit are as follows: first step, convert <u>USD to GBP</u>; second step, convert <u>GBP to CHF</u>, and third step, convert <u>CHF to USD</u>.
Therefore, the correct option is b) USD to GBP; GBP to CHF; CHF to USD.
Answer:
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Explanation:
