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frosja888 [35]
3 years ago
8

If one inch represents 65 on a map, then how many inches will represent 2,300 miles?

Mathematics
1 answer:
Alexus [3.1K]3 years ago
3 0
Use a ratio using consistent units. Let x = the unknown

1 inch/65 miles = x inches/2300 miles

then, x = 2300/65 = 35.38 inches
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If one inch represents 3 units, what dimensions would you use to draw a rectangular field that is 20 units by 14 units?​
mezya [45]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

If 1 inch = 3 units,

Therefore 1 unit = ⅓ inches, so to answer your question we have to

Multiply it by 20, to have :

20 units = 20× ⅓ = 20÷3

20 units = 6.66

Therefore we can use the same principle in that of 14 units.

14 units = (14 × ⅓) inches

14 units = 4.66 inches

PLEASE GIVE BRAINLIEST.

5 0
3 years ago
7.2 cw homework help
kati45 [8]

Answer:

31. Yes (Y)

WXYZ ~ DABC

S.F.=4


32. Yes (Y)

GHIJ ~ KLMN

S.F.=2/3


33. Missing length: 16


34. Missing length: 30


35. x=7


36. x=10


Step-by-step explanation:

31. The polygons are similar if:

WX/DA=XY/AB

Then:

WX/DA=24/6→WX/DA=4

XY/AB=16/4→XY/AB=4

Like WX/DA=4=XY/AB, the polygons WXYZ and DABC are similar

Scale Factor: S.F.=XY/DA=XY/AB→S.F.=4


32. The polygons are similar if:

GH/KL=HI/LM=IJ/MN=GJ/KN

Then:

GH/KL=6/9=(6/3)/(9/3)→GH/KL=2/3

HI/LM=4/6=(4/2)/(6/2)→HI/LM=2/3

IJ/MN=4/6=(4/2)/(6/2)→IJ/MN=2/3

GJ/KN=4/6=(4/2)/(6/2)→GJ/KN=2/3

Like GH/KL=HI/LM=IJ/MN=GJ/KN=4, the polygons GHIJ and KLMN are similar

Scale Factor: S.F.=GH/KL=HI/LM=IJ/MN=GJ/KN→S.F.=2/3


33. If the polygons are similar, their sides must be proportional, then:

x/24=10/15

Simplifying the fraction on the right sides of the equation, dividing the numerator ans denominator by 5:

x/24=(10/5)/(15/5)

Dividing:

x/24=2/3

Solving for x: Multiplying both sides of the equation by 24:

24(x/24)=24(2/3)

Multiplying:

x=8(2)

x=16


34. If the polygons are similar, their sides must be proportional, then:

54/63=(54/9)/(63/9)→54/63=6/7

48/56=(48/8)/(56/8)→48/56=6/7

x/35=6/7

Solving for x: Multiplying both sides of the equation by 35:

35(x/35)=35(6/7)

Multiplying:

x=5(6)

x=30


36. (8x-2)/63=42/49

Simplifying the fraction on the right sides of the equation, dividing the numerator ans denominator by 7:

(8x-2)/63=(42/7)/(49/7)

Dividing:

(8x-2)/63=6/7

Solving for x: Multiplying both sides of the equation by 63:

63(8x-2)63=63(6/7)

Multiplying:

8x-2=9(6)

8x-2=54

Adding 2 both sides of the equation:

8x-2+2=54+2

Adding:

8x=56

Dividing both sides of the equation by 8:

8x/8=56/8

Dividing:

x=7


37. (6x-6)/63=42/49=30/35

Simplifying the fractions

(6x-6)/63=(42/7)/(49/7)=(30/5)/(35/5)

Dividing:

(6x-6)/63=6/7

Solving for x: Multiplying both sides of the equation by 63:

63(6x-6)63=63(6/7)

Multiplying:

6x-6=9(6)

6x-6=54

Adding 6 both sides of the equation:

6x-6+6=54+6

Adding:

6x=60

Dividing both sides of the equation by 6:

6x/6=60/6

Dividing:

x=10



8 0
3 years ago
how much money will you have after 5 years if you deposit $750 into an account that earns 4% simple annual interest?
Helen [10]

Step-by-step explanation:

$ 900 is the answer. as i shown in the attachment

5 0
3 years ago
With my math and it has strawberries and grapes
kvv77 [185]

Answer:

9 total

3 strawberries

6 blueberries

Step-by-step explanation:

We have 9 berries

3 are strawberries

9-3 = 6

That leaves 6 to be blueberries

9 total

3 strawberries

6 blueberries

3 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A rare form of malignant tumor occurs in 11 children in a​ million, so its probability is 0.000011. Four cases of this tumor occ
Shkiper50 [21]

Answer:

a) The mean number of cases is 0.14608 cases.

b) The probability that the number of cases is exactly 0 or 1 is 0.990.

c) The probability of more than one case is 0.010

d) No, because the probability of more than one case is very small

Step-by-step explanation:

We can model this problem with a Poisson distribution, with parameter:

\lambda=r*t=0.000011*13,280=0.14608

a) The mean amount of cases is equal to the parameter λ=0.14608.

b) The probability of having 0 or 1 cases is:

P(k=0)=\frac{\lambda^0 e^{-\lambda}}{0!}=\frac{1*0.864}{1} =0.864\\\\ P(k=1)=\frac{\lambda^1 e^{-\lambda}}{0!}=\frac{0.14608*0.864}{1} =0.126\\\\P(k\leq1)=0.864+0.126=0.990

c) The probability of more than one case is:

P(k>1)=1-P(k\leq 1)=1-0.990=0.010

d) The cluster of 4 cases can not be due to pure chance, as it is a very high proportion of cases according to the average rate. Just having more than one case has a probability of 1%.

7 0
3 years ago
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