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mina [271]
3 years ago
10

In 2005, Anthara Inc. acquired Sathya Inc. for $1,200 million when the fair value of net assets (assets minus liabilities) of Sa

thya was $955 million. At the end of 2006, the net assets including goodwill, from Anthara’s acquisition of Sathya had a book value of $720 million. At this date the fair value of Sathya was assessed to be $700 million, while the fair value of Sathya excluding goodwill was assessed to be $550 million. Compute the amount of impairment loss that Anthara should record for goodwill at the end of 2006.
Business
1 answer:
tatiyna3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

$20 million

Explanation:

Data provided in the question:

Book value of assets in 2005 = $1,200 million

Fair value of assets in 2005 = $955 million

Book value of assets in 2006 = $720 million

Fair value of assets in 2006 = $700 million

Now,

Impairment Loss = Fair value - Carrying value of Net assets

or

Impairment Loss

= Fair value of assets in 2006 - book value of assets in 2006

= $700 million - $720 million

= - $20 million                [ Here, the negative sign means a loss]

Hence,

Impairment loss of $20 million

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When more than one central bank attempts to shift the equilibrium exchange rate, we refer to this as:?
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<span>When more than one of more of the central banks try to shift the exchange rates it is referred to as a market shift. These market shift occur periodically based on inflation and interest rates.</span>
8 0
3 years ago
Kaelea, Inc., has no debt outstanding and a total market value of $81,000. Earnings before interest and taxes, EBIT, are project
son4ous [18]

Answer:

a. We have:

EPS under normal = $1.09 per share

EPS under expansion = $1.34 per share

EPS under recession = $0.74 per share

b. We have:

Percentage changes in EPS when the economy expands = 23%

Percentage changes in EPS when the economy enters recession = –32%

c. We have:

EPS under normal after recapitalization = $1.24

EPS under expansion after recapitalization = $1.59 per share

EPS under recession after recapitalization = $0.75 per share

d. We have:

Percentage changes in EPS after recapitalization when the economy expands = 28.23%

Percentage changes in EPS when the economy enters recession = –39.52%

Explanation:

a. Calculate earnings per share, EPS, under each of the three economic scenarios before any debt is issued.

Shares outstanding = 5,400

Net income under normal = EBIT under normal - (EBIT under normal * Tax rate) = $9,800 - ($9,800 * 40%) = $5,880

EPS under normal = Net income under normal / Shares outstanding = $5,880 / 5,400 = $1.09 per share

Net income under expansion = (EBIT under normal * (100% + Percentage increase in EBIT)) - ((EBIT under normal * (100% + Percentage increase in EBIT)) * Tax rate) = ($9,800 * (100% + 23%)) – (($9,800 * (100% + 23%))* 40%) = $7,232.40

EPS under expansion = Net income under expansion / Shares outstanding = $7,232.40 / 5,400 = $1.34 per share

Net income under recession = (EBIT under normal * (100% - Percentage decrease in EBIT)) - ((EBIT under normal * (100% - Percentage decrease in EBIT)) * Tax rate) = ($9,800 * (100% - 32%)) – (($9,800 * (100% - 32%))* 40%) = $3,998.40

EPS under recession = Net income under recession / Shares outstanding = $3,998.40 / 5,400 = $0.74 per share

b. Calculate the percentage changes in EPS when the economy expands or enters a recession.

Percentage changes in EPS when the economy expands = ((EPS under expansion - EPS under normal) / EPS under normal) * 100 = (($1.34 - $1.09) / $1.09) * 100 = 23%

Percentage changes in EPS when the economy enters recession = ((EPS under recession - EPS under normal) / EPS under normal) * 100 = (($0.74 - $1.09) / $1.09) * 100 = –32%

c. Calculate earnings per share, EPS, under each of the three economic scenarios after the recapitalization.

Market price per share = Total market value / Shares outstanding before recapitalization = $81,000 / 5,400 = $15

Number of shares to repurchase = Debt amount / Market price per share = $23,100 / $15 = 1,540

Shares outstanding after recapitalization = Shares outstanding before recapitalization - Number of shares to repurchase = 5,400 – 1,540 = 3,860

Interest on debt = Debt amount * Interest rate = $23,100 * 8% = $1,848

Net income under normal after recapitalization = EBIT under normal – Interest on debt - ((EBIT under normal – Interest on debt) * Tax rate) = $9,800 - $1,848 - (($9,800 - $1,848) * 40%) = $4,771.20

EPS under normal after recapitalization = Net income under normal after recapitalization / Shares outstanding after recapitalization = $4,771.20 / 3,860 = $1.24

EBIT under expansion = EBIT under normal * (100% + Percentage increase in EBIT) = ($9,800 * (100% + 23%)) = $12,054

Net income under expansion after recapitalization = EBIT under expansion – Interest on debt – ((EBIT under expansion – Interest on debt) * Tax rate) = $12,054 - $1,848 - (($12,054 - $1,848) * 40%) = $6,123.60

EPS under expansion after recapitalization = Net income under expansion after recapitalization / Shares outstanding after recapitalization = $6,123.60 / 3,860 = $1.59 per share

EBIT under recession = EBIT under normal * (100% - Percentage decrease in EBIT) = ($9,800 * (100% - 32%)) = $6,664

Net income under recession after recapitalization = EBIT under recession – Interest on debt – ((EBIT under recession – Interest on debt) * Tax rate) = $6,664 - $1,848 - (($6,664 - $1,848) * 40%) = $2,889.60

EPS under recession after recapitalization = Net income under recession after recapitalization / Shares outstanding after recapitalization = $2,889.60 / 3,860 = $0.75 per share

d. Calculate the percentage changes in EPS when the economy expands or enters a recession.

Percentage changes in EPS after recapitalization when the economy expands = ((EPS under expansion after recapitalization - EPS under normal after recapitalization) / EPS under normal after recapitalization) * 100 = (($1.59 - $1.24) / $1.24) * 100 = 28.2%

Percentage changes in EPS when the economy enters recession = ((EPS under recession - EPS under normal) / EPS under expansion) * 100 = (($0.75 - $1.24) / $1.24) * 100 = –39.52%

6 0
3 years ago
arter Company sells merchandise on account for $4,000 to Hannah Company with credit terms of 2/10, n/30. Hannah Company returns
timama [110]

Answer:

The answers are:

  • Cr Accounts receivable $4,000
  • Dr $3,332 Cash
  • Dr $68 Sales discount
  • Dr $600 returned merchandise (damaged)

Explanation:

The credit terms of 2/10, n/30 means that if Hannah Company pays within ten days, they will get a 2% discount, or they have thirty days to pay the full receipt.

Hannah's check should be for:

($4,000 - $600) x 0.98% = $3,400 x 0.98% = $3,332  

Arter Company should record the following entries:

Cr Accounts receivable $4,000

Dr $3,332 Cash

Dr $68 Sales discount

Dr $600 returned merchandise (damaged)

6 0
3 years ago
Volvo of North America delivered automobiles to the Siberian police force when Siberia had no cash to pay for them. It accepted
posledela

The Volvo of North America delivered automobile to the Siberian police force when Siberia had no cash to pay for them. It accepted by the payment in oil, which it then sold for cash to pay for media advertising in the U.S. example of <u>counter-trade</u>.

Answer: Option B

<u>Explanation:</u>

The word counter trade means it is an exchange goods or services which are paid for wholly or partly with other goods or services either than with money. However, counter trade used for accounting purposes. In this case counter trade deals between sovereign states.

7 0
3 years ago
Karl opens a savings account with $2500. He deposits $1500 every year into the account that has a 0.75% interest rate, compounde
zhuklara [117]

Answer:

Total FV= $29,335.25

Explanation:

<u>First, we need to calculate the future value of the initial investment ($2,500) using the following formula:</u>

FV= PV*(1 + i)^n

PV= $2,500

i= 0.0075

n=10*12= 120 months

FV= 2,500*(1.0075^120)

FV= $6,128.39

<u>Now, the future value of the $1,500 annual deposit:</u>

FV= {A*[(1+i)^n-1]}/i

A= annual deposit

We need to determine the effective annual rate:

Effective annual rate= (1.0075^12) - 1= 0.0938

FV= {1,500*[(1.0938^10) - 1]} / 0.0938

FV= $23,206.86

Total FV= $29,335.25

5 0
3 years ago
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