It’s a because I just did this
If it is written as log base 2 (1/64) then you make it equal a question mark (believe me)
then you rewrite to exponential form so you would write it as 2^? = 1/64
and 1-64 is the same as 2^-6, so negative 6 is your answer
The plane has intercepts at (1, 0, 0), (0, 2, 0), and (0, 0, 6), so we can parameterize the surface
by
where
and
. Now
so the surface integral reduces to
Answer:
A) Lifetime: 200+15x
Health Bridge: 50+30x
B.1) Yes, they are both the same price after 10 Months at an amount of $350
B.2) Lifetime gym would be cheaper by $30
C) Health Bridge Gym because it is $60 less
D) Lifetime Gym
Step-by-step explanation:
A) 200=Initial Fee___15=Monthly Cost___x=Months
50=Initial Fee___30=Monthly Cost___x=Months
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B.1) 200+15(10)=350
50+30(10)=350
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B.2) 200+15(12)=$380
50+30(12)=$410
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C) 200+15(6)=290
50+30(6)=230
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Lifetime Gym's initial fee is greater than Health Bridge's fee but without exceeding $500, you are able to go to the gym for 20 months rather than 15 months using Health Bridge's plan.
D)200+15(20)=$500
50+30(15)=$500
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I hope this is enough work shown, if you need a better understanding let me know and I will revise the equations for you.
<em>The ratio of shared costs of mean=2:3.
One person paid the cost </em>£<em>52.20, so let the other person paid the cost be X.
</em><em>(2/3)=(52.20/X)
</em><em>X=(52.20</em>×3)/2
X=26.10×3
X=78.30
So the gross cost paid by both the person = £(78.30+52.20)
⇒£130.60
