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3 years ago

Rewrite the equation by completing the square.

Mathematics

1 answer:

pashok25 [27]3 years ago

5 0

Answer:

f(x)= (x-5)(x+6)

Step-by-step explanation:

First, we find the factors of -30 that add up to +1

We can use 6 and -5

6+(-5)=1

f(x)= x^2+6x - 5x-30

then, we do group factorization

f(x)= x(x+6)- 5(x+6)

f(x)= (x-5)(x+6)

i hope this helps <3

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What is the volume of the prism?

Triss [41]

Answer:

volume of hexagonal prism = area of base * perpendicular height

Step-by-step explanation:

4 0

3 years ago

Compare the line passing through the points (−3, −11) and (6, 4) to the line given by the equation y=35x−6.

Aleks04 [339]

Let
A------> (−3, −11)
B------> (6, 4)

step 1
find the slope m point A and point B
m=(y2-y1)/(x2-x1)-----> m=(4+11)/(6+3)----> m=15/9---> 5/3

step 2
with m=5/3 and point B (6, 4) find the equation of a line
y-y1=m*(x-x1)-----> y-4=(5/3)*(x-6)---> y=(5/3)x-6

case a. they have the same slope------> is not correct
because
y=35x−6------> the slope m=35
y=(5/3)x-6---> the slope m =5/3

case b. they have the same x-intercept.----> is not correct
because
the x-intercept is for y=0

y=35x−6-----> 0=35x-6----> 35x=6-----> x=6/35
the x-intercept is the point (6/35,0)

y=(5/3)x-6----> 0=(5/3)x-6----> (5/3)x=6---> x=18/5
the x-intercept is the point (18/5,0)

case c. the two lines are perpendicular. do. they have the same y-intercept-----> is nor correct
because

if two lines are perpendicular
m1*m2=-1-------> this condition is not satisfied

the y intercept is for x=0

y=35x−6-------> y=-6
the y intercept is the point (0,-6)

y=(5/3)x-6-----> y=-6
the y intercept is the point (0,-6)

they have the same y-intercept but the two lines are not perpendicular

see the attached figure

7 0

3 years ago

What is 17 less than a number g?

Sophie [7]

I hope this helps you

17-g

8 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

You read online that the probability of being dealt four‑of‑a‑kind in a five‑card poker hand is 1 / 4165. Explain carefully what

Lapatulllka [165]

Answer:

There is about 4,164/4,165 chances of not getting getting a four of a kind. So, it is extremely unlikely or even borderline impossible in that situation to get a four of a kind.

But in the long run, it can be increased only if you keep drawing. So, the awnser would have to be. D

Step-by-step explanation:

A. It does mean that if you are dealt 4165 five‑card poker hands, one will be four‑of‑a‑kind.

B. It does not mean that all will be four‑of‑a‑kind. The probability is actually saying that only on the 4165 the poker hand will you get a four‑of‑a‑kind, not just on any of the 4165 poker hands.

C. The probability is actually saying that in the long run, with a large number of five‑card poker hands, the fraction in which you will be dealt a four‑of‑a‑kind is 1 / 4165.

D. The chance you will be dealt four‑of‑a‑kind is 1 / 4165 only on the first hand. This chance will then increase with each new hand you are dealt until you eventually win

6 0

3 years ago

Plzz help me im am stuck

Pachacha [2.7K]

I hope this helps you!

7 0

4 years ago