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Annette [7]
3 years ago
11

The average depth of a certain ocean is 10,938 feet below the surface of the ocean.

Mathematics
1 answer:
Jet001 [13]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

-10,938

Step-by-step explanation:

Since it is below sea level then it’s negative.

Hope this help!

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Let’s work with some actual data this time. Go online to research and find a set of real-world data in two variables. The data c
slega [8]

The quadratic regression equation that best fits the data set is y = 32.86x² - 379.14x  + 1369.14

<h3>The data points </h3>

The following table of values represents the data points that would be used to solve this question:

x 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

y 470 416 403 226 314 338 693

Where:

  • x represents years since 2000
  • y represents the annual revenue of a manufacturing company in thousand dollars

<h3>The function of the dataset</h3>

The table of values illustrates a quadratic function.

The function would be calculated using a graphing calculator

From the graphing calculator, we have:

a = 32.86; b = -379.14 and c = 1369.14

A quadratic regression equation is represented as:

y = ax² + bx + c

So, we have:

y = 32.86x² - 379.14x  + 1369.14

Hence, the quadratic regression equation that best fits the data set is y = 32.86x² - 379.14x  + 1369.14

<h3>Why the function type was chosen?</h3>

From the table of values in (a), we can see that as x increases; the value of y decreases and then increases after it reaches a minimum.

This illustrates the behavior of a quadratic regression function

See attachment for the scatter plot

Read more about quadratic regression equation at:

brainly.com/question/14786188

#SPJ1

5 0
2 years ago
A Nevada roulette wheel had 38 pockets, labeled as 0 00 1 2 3 ... 35 36. One bet is single number. If you bet $1 on a number (an
slavikrds [6]

Answer:

-0.0526

Step-by-step explanation:

Let X be the random variable denoting the net gain(in dollars) for a single trial(one bet).

Assuming that each number in the wheel is equally likely, probability of the outcome being a victory is \frac{1}{38} and probability of failure is \frac{37}{38}. For a win, X takes value 35 and for a loss X takes value -1. So the model is,

P(X=35) = \frac{1}{38}

P(X=-1) = \frac{37}{38}

P(X=i) = 0 \;if\; i \neq 38, i\neq -1

The mean for one bet is E(X) = \sum xP(X=x) = 35\times\frac{1}{38} - 1\times\frac{37}{38} = -0.0526

3 0
3 years ago
Can someone please solve these questions
k0ka [10]
1)

=> <span>m∠2 = 2x +13
=> </span><span><span>m∠1 = </span> 4x - 1
Since YP angle bisector the angles with be equal to each other,
</span>
m∠1 = <span>m∠2
2x + 13 = 4x - 1
2x - 4x = -1 -13
-2x = -14
x = 7
</span>
All other questions are to be done in that way, don't be lazy :P
6 0
3 years ago
Please help i wanna move to the next grade,10 points
AfilCa [17]

Answer:

C -1

Step-by-step explanation:

- 3x + 2 < 5

5 - 2 = 3

- 3x  \div  - 3

3 \div  - 3 =  - 1

x =  - 1

4 0
3 years ago
What is the measure of angle Z in the parallelogram shown?
Anarel [89]

Answer:

30 Degress

Step-by-step explanation:

8 0
3 years ago
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