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lakkis [162]
3 years ago
11

Suppose that the standard deviation of quarterly changes in the prices of a commodity is $0.65, the standard deviation of quarte

rly changes in a futures price on the commodity is $0.81, and the coefficient of correlation between the two changes is 0.8. A three-month contract is used for hedging. Which of the following is true?
A. The size of the futures position should be 64.2% of the size of the company’s exposure in a three-month hedge.
B. The size of the company’s exposure should be 64.2% of the size of the futures position in a three-month hedge.
C. The size of the futures position should be 35.8% of the size of the company’s exposure in a three-month hedge.
D. The size of the futures position should be 99.7% of the size of the company’s exposure in a three-month hedge.
Business
1 answer:
Mice21 [21]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

The size of the futures position should be 64.2% of the size of the company’s exposure in a three-month hedge.

Explanation:

As given,

The standard deviation of quarterly changes in the prices of a commodity = $0.65

The standard deviation of quarterly changes in a futures price on the commodity =  $0.81

The coefficient of correlation between the two changes = 0.8

Now,

Optimal hedge ratio = 0.8×\frac{0.645}{0.81} = 0.8×0.80 = 0.6419

⇒Optimal hedge = 0.6419 ≈ 0.642 = 64.2 %

⇒The size of the futures position should be 64.2% of the size of the       company’s exposure in a three-month hedge.

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Your company's intranet Web server has crashed. You must help re-create the server. A server administrator has copied a script f
nalin [4]

Answer:

a CGI script

Explanation:

Based on the scenario being described within the question it can be said that the most likely problem on the server is a CGI script. In the context of information technology, a Common Gateway Interface (CGI) is an interface for web servers used to execute certain scripts or programs. Therefore there must be a problem with the CGI script since it is not being read correctly and causing the crash.

8 0
3 years ago
firm has 2,000,000 shares of common stock outstanding with a market price of $2 per share. It has 2,000 bonds outstanding, each
Yuki888 [10]

Answer:

A Firm

The firm's WACC is:

= 12.16%

Explanation:

a) Data and Calculations:

                                              Common               Bonds

                                                  Stock

Outstanding shares/bonds  2,000,000              2,000

Market price per unit                $2                     $1,200

Total market value             $4,000,000   $2,400,000

Total value of debt and equity = $6,400,000

Weight                                      62.5%                37.5% ($2,400/$6,400*100)

Cost of bonds (coupon rate) = 10%

Tax rate = 34%

Firm's beta = 1.5

Risk-free rate = 5%

Market risk premium = 7%

After-tax cost of bonds = 6.6% (1 - 0.34) * 10%

Cost of common stock =

Risk Free Rate + Beta x (Market Return - Risk Free Rate)

= 5% + 1.5 x (7%)

= 5% + 10.5%

= 15.5%

WACC = 15.5% * 62.5% + 6.6% * 37.5%

= 0.096875 + 0.02475

= 0.1216

= 12.16%

7 0
3 years ago
The custodian of a $450 petty cash fund discovers that the fund has $65 in coins and currency plus $382 in receipts at the end o
Mandarinka [93]

The entry to replenish the petty cash fund will include a credit to cash for $385.

What is petty cash fund?

When regular purchasing techniques are impractical, such as when buying office supplies or paying employees, a tiny sum of money called petty cash is utilized instead.

The entry to replenish the petty cash fund amount will include:

Fund amount : $450 - Used

Fund amount  :$450 - $382 = 68

cash on hand - remaining ; $68 - $65 = $3

Used + remaining ; $382 + $65 = 385

As a result, a credit to cash for $385.

Learn more about on petty cash fund, here:

brainly.com/question/23864192

#SPJ1

8 0
1 year ago
Ware Co. produces and sells motorcycle parts. On the first day of its fiscal year, Ware issued $35,000,000 of five-year, 12% bon
nlexa [21]

Answer:

Cash proceeds is $37,702,607.23  

First premium amortization $214,869.64

Second premium amortization is $225,613.12

First year interest expense is $ 3,759,517.24  

Explanation:

The amount of cash proceeds from the bond issue is the pv of the bond using the pv formula,=-pv(rate,nper,pmt,fv)

rate is 10% yield to maturity divided 2 since interest is semi-annual i.e 5%

nper is 5 years multiplied by 2=10

pmt is the semi-annual interest payable by the bond i.e $35,000,000*12%*6/12=$2,100,000

fv is the face value of the bond at $35,000,000

=-pv(5%,10,2100000,35000000)

pv=$37,702,607.23  

The amount of premium to be amortized in first semi-annual interest payment:

Interest expense=$$37,702,607.23*10%/2=$1,885,130.36  

coupon interest=$35,000,000*12%/2=$2,100,000

Premium amortized=$2,100,000-$1,885,130.36  

premium amortized=$214,869.64  

The amount of premium to be amortized in second semi-annual interest payment:

interest expense=($37,702,607.23+$2,100,000-$1,885,130.36)*10%/2

                           =$1,874,386.88  

Premium amortized=$2,100,000-$1,874,386.88

premium amortized=$225613.12

Bond expense for the first payment= 37,702,607.23*10%/2  

                                                           =$1,885,130.362

Bond expense for the first payment=  37,487,737.59  *10%/2  

                                                           =$ 1,874,386.88  

First year bond interest expense= 1,874,386.88+1,885,130.362  

                                                      =$ 3,759,517.24  

                                                     

Find attached schedule in addition

Download xlsx
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3 years ago
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algol13

Answer:

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