Answer:
The answer is: Obligation that has a distant due date exceeding company's operating cycle.
Explanation:
A current liability is a financial obligation due within one year (or one normal operation cycle).
So a financial obligation that has a due date that exceeds a company´s operating cycle should have been directly classified as a long term liability (or a non current liability) in the first place. It simply is not a current liability that is changed into a long term liability, it always was a long term liability.
The other options represent the steps necessary for turning a current liability into a long term liability.
- Intend to refinance the obligation on a long-term basis.
- Demonstrate the ability to complete the refinancing.
- Subsequently refinance the obligation on a long-term basis.
Answer:
$11,895,000
Explanation:
Expected annual earnings before tax = $21,000,000
Debt issue = $30,000,000
Interest rate = 9%
Annual Interest expenses = $30,000,000 × 9%
= $2,700,000
EBT = EBIT - Interest expenses
= $21,000,000 - $2,700,000
= $18,300,000
Net income = $18,300,000 × (1 - 35%)
= $11,895,000
Cash flows available to equity holders after recapitalization will be $11,895,000.
Hacking involves breaking into a network to steal data such as customer lists, product inventory data, employee data, and other proprietary and confidential data.
<h3>Who is a hacker?</h3>
This is the term that is used to refer to a person that would consciously steal data across computer systems. This person would use certain programs and software to break into the personal computers of individuals and organizations in order to get sensitive data.
Hence we can say that Hacking involves breaking into a network to steal data such as customer lists, product inventory data, employee data, and other proprietary and confidential data.
Read more on Hacking here: brainly.com/question/24956493
#SPJ1
Answer:
The answer: ''In other words, it examines how actions and events involving top executives, firms and industries influence a firm's success or failure'' is correct.
Explanation:
To begin with, in the field of business the managers tend to be very agressive and competitive in order to set their companies in the top of the industry and therefore to obtain the maximun profits as possible.
To continue, the strategic management group wonder themself why do some firms outperform other firms and the answer to that question has many factors that influece the situation where that happens, in other words, it is normal that many companies with less resources, such as money or human knowledge, tend to give a worst performance that other companies that count with executives with huge experience or better economic situations in the industry. Moreover, it is known that the companies with a manager that knows how to manage the business with the resources it has and how to comprehend the situation where it heads will perform at a higher level than the other.
Answer:
a. $3,400
b. $0
Explanation:
As we know
Total assets = Total liabilities + owners equity
a. In the first case
The shareholder equity would be
= Total assets - total liabilities
= $10,800 - $7,400
= $3,400
b. In the first case, the shareholder equity would be zero as it should not be negative. The negative value would be
= Total assets - total liabilities
= $6,500 - $7,400
= -$900
So it would be zero
