If you need to indicate the missing ammount of each letter in the grahp then it will be like follows:
For the first case:
A = $9,600 + $5,000 + $8,000 = $22,600$22,600 + $1,000 – B = $17,000
B = $22,600 + $1,000 – $17,000 = $6,600$17,000 + C = $20,000
C = $20,000 – $17,000 = $3,000
D = $20,000 – $3,400 = $16,600
<span>E = ($24,500 – $2,500) – $16,600 = $5,400
</span><span>F = $5,400 – $2,500 = $2,900
</span>And now for the second case:
G + $8,000 + $4,000 = $16,000
G = $16,000 – $8,000 – $4,000 = $4,000$16,000 + H – $3,000 = $22,000
H = $22,000 + $3,000 – $16,000 = $9,000(I – $1,400) – K = $7,000(I – $1,400) – $22,800 = $7,000
<span>I = $1,400 + $22,800 + $7,000 = $31,200
</span>J = $22,000 + $3,300 = $25,300
K = $25,300 – $2,500 = $22,800$7,000 – L = $5,000
<span>L = $2,000</span>
Answer:
See below
Explanation:
Goodwill arises when is a business is acquired as a going concern. It is an intangible asset of a business. Goodwill represents the value of a company's customer base, its location, any patents, and the brand name. It consists of the value of suppliers, customers, and employee relationships that facilitates the smooth running of the business.
The value of goodwill is the difference between the purchase price and the net cost of its tangible and other intangible assets of a business. Amortization of goodwill means spreading the cost of goodwill to several financial years.
Goodwill is amortized because the business benefits from the goodwill for many years. In other words, the expenditure on goodwill will profit the company in more than one financial year. As per the matching principle, expenses and incomes should be recognized in the period they occur. As benefits will be enjoyed in many years, the expenses should also be spread in similar years.
Answer:
The least that this option should sell for is $3,125.
Explanation:
Acording to the data, we have the following:
The current spot exchange is $1.55=€1.00
The call option has a strike price of $1.50=€1.00 and spot price is €62,500
Hence,to calculate the least value this option should sell for we have to calculate the following:
$1.55-$1.50=$0.05
Hence, $0.05*62,500= $3,125.
Answer:
Real purchasing power increase= 2.16%
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
You deposit $1,900 in your savings account that pays an annual interest rate of 3.25%. The inflation rate is 1.09%.
In this example, we have two different and opposite effects. The interest rate increases your purchasing power. If the inflation rate is 0, the purchasing power will increase (in one year) 3.25%.
The inflation rate decreases the purchasing power of nominal income.
Real purchasing power increase= annual interest rate - inflation rate
Real purchasing power increase= 3.25 - 1.09= 2.16%
Answer:
units completed and ending work in process.
Explanation:
Process costing can be defined as a cost accounting method used for assigning manufacturing or production costs to the units of goods produced by a business firm over a specific period of time. It is mostly used by firms that produce a large quantity of homogeneous or similar products on a continuous basis. Process costing typically uses more than one Work in Process Inventory account because costing at each stage of production or manufacturing process.
Basically, when manufacturing overhead costs of a business firm or company are applied to the cost of production in a process costing system, they are debited to the Work-in-Process inventory account.
In the manufacturing process, partially or partly completed goods that are still in the process of being converted into a finish product are defined as work-in-process inventories.
Generally, the work-in-process inventories include the following raw materials cost, direct labor cost and factory overhead cost.
The equivalent-unit calculations is done by multiplying the number of partially completed physical goods by the percentage of completion.
Hence, equivalent-unit calculations are necessary to allocate manufacturing costs between units completed and ending work in process.
