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g100num [7]
3 years ago
11

A Corporation produces shiny discs. A special order has been placed by the customer to for 3,100 units of the for $29 a unit. Wh

ile the disc would be modified slightly for the special order, the normal unit product cost for each disc is $20.60:
Direct materials $ 4.60
Direct labor 4.00
Variable manufacturing overhead 1.70
Fixed manufacturing overhead 6.60
Unit product cost $ 16.90
Assume that direct labor is a variable cost. The special order would have no effect on the company's total fixed manufacturing overhead costs.
The customer would like modifications made to each disc that would increase the variable costs by $1.90 per unit and that would require an investment of $16,000 in special equipment that would have no salvage value.
This special order would have no effect on Rick Corp.'s other sales. The company has enough spare capacity for producing the special order.
What would be the annual financial advantage (disadvantage) for Rick as a result of accepting this special order?
a. $40,760
b. $15,700
c. $2,000
d. $16,200
Business
1 answer:
statuscvo [17]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

okp

Explanation:

ok

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Golebiewski Corporation has provided the following contribution format income statement. Assume that the following information i
Andrews [41]

Answer:

Margin of safety= $9,000

Explanation:

<u>First, we need to calculate the selling price and unitary variable cost:</u>

Selling price= 150,000 / 5,000= $30

Unitary varaible cost= 112,500 / 5,000= $22.5

<u>Now, we need to determine the break-even point in dollars:</u>

Break-even point (dollars)= fixed costs/ contribution margin ratio

Break-even point (dollars)= 35,250 / [(30 - 22.5) / 30]

Break-even point (dollars)= 35,250 / 0.25

Break-even point (dollars)= $141,000

<u>Finally, the margin of safety in dollars:</u>

Margin of safety= (current sales level - break-even point)

Margin of safety= 150,000 - 141,000

Margin of safety= $9,000

8 0
3 years ago
Suppose the Simmons Co's common stock has a beta of 1.37, the risk-free rate is 3.4 percent, and the market risk premium is 8.2
kondor19780726 [428]

Answer: 11.65%

Explanation:

First find cost of equity using CAPM:

= Risk free rate + Beta * Market risk premium

= 3.4% + 1.37 * 8.2%

= 14.6%

Debt to equity = 0.45

This means that weight of debt is:

= 0.45 / (1 + 0.45)

= 31.03%

Weight of equity:

= 1 - 31.03%

= 68.97%

WACC = (Weight of equity * cost of equity) + (weight of debt * cost of debt * (1 - tax))

= (68.97% * 14.6%) + (31.03% * 7.6% * (1 - 34%))

= 11.63%

= 11.65% as per options

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