Hello. You did not submit the passage this question refers to, which makes it impossible for it to be answered. However, when searching for your question on the internet, I was able to find a question like yours where it featured a passage from the book "Leviathan." If that's the case for you, I hope the answer below will help you.
Answer and Explanation:
A. The passage portrays how the sovereign of a region is not subject to civil laws, as he is the only one who has the power to revoke them, which allows him to be free to do as he pleases. A historical situation that motivated him to write this was the existence of manipulations in the laws of England brought about by the monarchy and the commonwealth sovereigns.
B. A broader historical development that inspired Hobbes was the existence of an absolutist monarchy that gave kings and queens full control of all civil, political, and social laws and elements.
<span>Throughout the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries, British
officials found it difficult to enforce laws regulating trade restrictions in the American colonies. Smuggling was commonplace.</span><span>
<span>Oliver Cromwell ended the tradition of Puritanism in favor of mercantilism,
a political and economic policy in which government
takes control of all economic activities. Key industries were taxed, and new laws were created to
increase Britain's colonial revenues.</span></span>
It would be in Alexandria
Under the Neutrality Act of 1939, warring nations could buy weapons from
the US only if they paid cash and carried the arms on their own ships
The main reason why <span>America offered Marshall Aid to Europe was to stop the spread of communism, since countries with terrible, war-torn economies were at much more risk of falling prey to the communists. </span>