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Strike441 [17]
2 years ago
6

Need some help (Geo)​

Mathematics
2 answers:
Vlada [557]2 years ago
8 0

Answer:

A 60

Step-by-step explanation:

andreev551 [17]2 years ago
8 0

Answer:

A

Step-by-step explanation:

there are 2 ways to solve this...

1st, y=60 by the vertical angles theorem

2nd, x=120 by the linear pair postulate (x + 60 = 180)

next, y=60 because y + 120 = 180

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7. What are the solutions of the equation? x2 = 11x − 24
mote1985 [20]
Assuming you typed this correctly, and how you wanted it, then the answer(s) would be x=3, or x=8. Both answers are correct. If it were multiple choice, then the answer would look something like: X=3 or 8.
If you meant 2x, then the answer would be x=8/3. This is a fraction
7 0
3 years ago
a motorist left home at 10 a.m. to travel to a cityof a distance of 260 km he reckoned hecould average 80km/ h at what time woul
kap26 [50]

Answer:

He would get there at 1:15 (I did this in my head, may be wrong)

Step by step solution:

We know the motorist left home at 10. We can divide the 260/80 and we get 3 hrs, we still have 20 km left over, keep on dividing and you get 1:15 p.m.

6 0
2 years ago
Paula has a dog that weights 3 times as much as Carla's dog. The total weight of the dogs is 48 pound. How much does Paula's dog
tiny-mole [99]
Paula's dog is 36 lbs

Use the equation 48=3x+x

Add like terms: 48=4x

Divide: 12=x (x=Carla's dog's weight)

Then Multiply x by 3 to get Paula's dog's weight and you get 36 lbs
5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A research study uses 800 men under the age of 55. Suppose that 30% carry a marker on the male chromosome that indicates an incr
ss7ja [257]

Answer:

a) There is a 12.11% probability that exactly 1 man has the marker.

b) There is a 85.07% probability that more than 1 has the marker.

Step-by-step explanation:

There are only two possible outcomes: Either the men has the chromosome, or he hasn't. So we use the binomial probability distribution.

Binomial probability

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.\pi^{x}.(1-\pi)^{n-x}

In which C_{n,x} is the number of different combinatios of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

And \pi is the probability of X happening.

In this problem, we have that:

30% carry a marker on the male chromosome that indicates an increased risk for high blood pressure, so \pi = 0.30

(a) If 10 men are selected randomly and tested for the marker, what is the probability that exactly 1 man has the marker?

10 men, so n = 10

We want to find P(X = 1). So:

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.\pi^{x}.(1-\pi)^{n-x}

P(X = 1) = C_{10,1}.(0.30)^{1}.(0.7)^{9} = 0.1211

There is a 12.11% probability that exactly 1 man has the marker.

(b) If 10 men are selected randomly and tested for the marker, what is the probability that more than 1 has the marker?

That is P(X > 1)

We have that:

P(X \leq 1) + P(X > 1) = 1

P(X > 1) = 1 - P(X \leq 1)

We also have that:

P(X \leq 1) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1)

P(X = 0) = C_{10,0}.(0.30)^{0}.(0.7)^{10} = 0.0282

So

P(X \leq 1) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) = 0.0282 + 0.1211 = 0.1493

Finally

P(X > 1) = 1 - P(X \leq 1) = 1 - 0.1493 = 0.8507

There is a 85.07% probability that more than 1 has the marker.

3 0
3 years ago
Please asap find the area of this figure... picture attached
DanielleElmas [232]
1911.4849 approx


Mark brainliest please
3 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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